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Exam Code: 3102.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

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NO.2 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been asked to
apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new Application
Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating Application Sequence
drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the Berlin
location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

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NO.4 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session Manager
but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password is valid
In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again in
Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.5 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data, using
which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. undefined
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main site and
Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

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NO.8 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.9 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a user name
and password.
Which statement best explains why a user name and password are required.?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption process and
subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are used to
login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and authentication
purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation. For
system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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Exam Code: 3303
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 In Avaya Proactive Contact 5.0, which application can be used to enable/disable the Agent Job list
feature?
A. Agent Application
B. Command User Interface (System Telnet)
C. Analyst
D. Editor
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which hardware component is required for a hard dialer Proactive Contact 5.X.?
A. Avaya Application Enablement Services (AES) 3.1 or later
B. Avaya Enhanced Network Bus Controller (ENBC)
C. Avaya Communication Manager (CM) 3.1 or later
D. TN-744-based Call Classifier Cards version "e" or later
Answer: B

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NO.3 A system operator opens a Job Status view in the Avaya Proactive Contact Monitor and notices that
the status for job EXP100 is shown as Active, but the character-based Job Monitor no longer shows the
job as running. The system operator calls support and asks for an explanation.
Which three actions would you perform to begin troubleshooting the problem? (Choose three.)
A. Log on to the dialer and run check_db and check_mts.
B. Instruct the supervisor on how to generate debugging data in the cd.log file and ask the supervisor to
send you the output for analysis.
C. Tell the supervisor how to locate her personal directory and how to delete all the .cmv files foundthere.
D. Log on to the dialer and run sqlplus, and then enter the following query: SQL> select * from
mo_last_status;
E. Log on to the dialer and run sqlplus, and then enter the following query: SQL> select * from dialerdef;
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Which three should you verify if a network connection error is suspected between the Avaya Proactive
Contact 5.X server and the PG230RM? (Choose three.)
A. Run lanscan and landiag and look for collisions and other errors on the internal network (lan0).
B. Verify the name (switch1) and IP address for the PG230RM matches between the /etc/hosts onthe
AvayaProactiveContact server and in the Network Configuration page on the PG230RM (under the
Current Internet Address).
C. Verify that SWITCHTYPE is set to DIGITAL in /opt/avaya/pds/etc/master.cfg on the Avaya Proactive
Contact server.
D. Verify you have an active flashing LED light on the front of the ENBC card indicating LAN activity.
E. Verify that there are four swif_dg processes running on the Avaya Proactive Contact server.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 What should the crontab of a secondary dialer have?
A. pds_maintenance
B. pds_maintenance and db_rnaintenance
C. pds_maintenance and mts_maintenance
D. pds_maintenance, mts_maintenance and db_mainlenance
Answer: B

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NO.6 On the Avaya Proactive Contact Analyst application, which section shows you Non-Contact and Error
summary reports?
A. Agent
B. Job
C. Administrative
D. Agent Monthly
Answer: B

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NO.7 What does db_mgr script do?
A. It stops and starts the database
B. It copies calling lists to *.old.
C. It rolls up the daily data into monthly statistics.
D. It removes all old and outdated files from the system.
E. It runs a backup of the database to DVD.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A system operator reports that agents are randomly being disconnected from Proactive Contact Agent.
You have reviewed the available data and it is inconclusive. Since the problem is intermittent, you need to
set up the dialer so that it will gather the data you need in the future.
Assuming that the current date is February 19, 2011, which command would you enter in the hopes of
recording the next occurrence?
A. tail-facc*0219
B. check_errors 20110219
C. logadm -p opmon |7
D. logcat -p agent
Answer: C

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NO.9 A business has a three dialer pod (one primary and two secondary) and ten supervisor workstations.
How many Java processes should be running while checking mid-tier services (check_mts)?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 10
D. 13
E. 14
Answer: A

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NO.10 A Job is running on Avaya Proactive Contact 5.0 and the system operator notices that not enough
records are selected. The operator wants to change selection criteria to select more records and re-run
the call selection without stopping the job.
How can this be achieved?
A. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Monitor.
B. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Editor.
C. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Command User Interface (CUI).
D. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Analyst.
Answer: A

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NO.11 To configure the opt-out feature for a virtual job, you need to select the check-box against "Should 'opt
outs' be enabled". This enables other configuration parameters for this feature.
Which three configuration parameters are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Opt-out Digit: 5
B. When an opt-out happens, transfer to .. : Transfer to a VDN
C. Message to be played when opt-out fails : 1
D. When opt-out happens, transfer to : Transfer to an outbound job
E. Opt out Digit: #
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 A system is logging errors on a porter process during every reboot/restart of Proactive Contact. Which
two parameters, if mismatched, would cause this? (Choose two.)
A. PORTSinmaster, cfg
B. OPERATORS in master, cfg
C. MAXHIDSLOTS in master, cfg
D. H specified ports configuredindgswitch.cfg
E. N specified ports configured in dgswitch.cfg
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 A system supervisor calls support to report that when Job Agent view in Monitor is used, agents that are
on break cannot be seen.
What is the reason for this happening?
A. An agent who is on break is not really on a job. The supervisor should see that the agent is still on the
system by looking at a Dialer Agent view Instead.
B. The agents are exiting out of the Proactive Contact Agent (PC Agent) application rather than using the
"Go On Break" option in the PC Agent menu.
C. Display of agents who have used the "Go On Break" function of PC Agent application is not supported
in Monitor.
D. Monitor may not be configured to display agents who are on break.
E. An agent who has used the "Go On Break" function Is shown as "Off Job" in Monitor.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A system operator needs to see failed login attempts on the Avaya Proactive Contact 5.X dialer. Which
login type must be used to see these failed attempts?
A. sysadm
B. system
C. auditor
D. reporter
Answer: C

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NO.15 A system supervisor uses Editor to create a new completion code for use in a Job that will run later in
the day. The job seems to start up without any problem, but when the supervisor looks at Monitor's Job
Completion Code view, no agents are releasing calls using the new code.
Which two Issues would contribute to this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The agents did not get the email describing the new completion code and the conditions for Itsuse.
B. The completion code changes are in the pending state and won't be available to agents until after the
next dialing application restart.
C. The Proactive Contact Agent application has not been updated to use the new completion code.
D. Monitor is not working properly. There should be at least a few calls with the new completion code.
E. The system supervisor forgot to add the new completion code to the agent keys file associated with the
job.
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: 132-S-712-2
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam)
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Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio?
(Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

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NO.2 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line
on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent
Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

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NO.3 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give
supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya
Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.HierarchyManager
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages
to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

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NO.5 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who
handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because
calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help
and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's
needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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NO.6 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent
Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

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NO.7 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your
customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was
received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the
agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

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NO.8 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the
customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent
releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when
the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and
the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

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NO.9 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the
system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.10 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor
software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

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NO.1 Which two DHCP configuration stops must be accomplished for an Access Point (AP) to
identify a
Wireless Controller (WC) to manage it? (Choose two.)
A. The sub-option 08 with value "AVAYA AP" must he Included before other sub options.
B. The prefix "AVAYA-AP" must be included before the list of IP addresses.
C. The IP address of the Active Mobility Domain Controller (AMDC) and Backup Mobility Domain
Controllers (BMDC) must be provided in the 43 field. The AMDC will ensure the AP gets assigned to
the
correct WC.
D. The IP address of any WC in the domain may be provided in the option 43 field. APs will get
assigned
to the correct WC even if it isn t the same IP address as listed in the option 43 field.
E. If the AP needs to be managed by a particular WC, the IP address of that specific controller in the
option 43 field must be specified.
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which two DHCP options are required for a Wireless LAN client? (Choose two)
A. DHCP option 3 - Router (Default Gateway)
B. DHCP option 6 - DNS Server D C) DHCP option 12 - Host Name
C. DHCP option 15 - DNS name
D. DHCP option 43 - Vendor specified option for switch discovery
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 A customer has deployed an Avaya WLAN 8l00 system with minimal coverage and has placed
all of the Access Points (APs) in operational mode.
Assuming that the customer has deployed no other wireless security measures, which behavior
should
their technicians expect when they enable rogue AP threat mitigation?
A. The APs will send de authentication messages to all rogue APs and their associated clients with
Basic
Service Set Identifications (BSSIDs) different from their own.
B. The APs will scan the legal channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication
messages to the rogue APs.
C. The APs will send de authentication messages to the clients associated to rogue APs operating on
the
same channel as the managed AP.
D. The APs will scan all channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication messages
to
all rogue APs and their associated clients.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A technician is replacing a failed WLAN Management System (WMS) server and wants to
import a
saved configuration onto the new server. The new Access Point (AP) license has already been
installed
on the new WMS and everything is working.
What is the best way to import a previously saved configuration?
A. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\conf and restart WMS.
B. Manually add all WC(s) in the domain, and then sync the policies from the Active Mobility
Domain
Controller (AMDC).
C. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\backup and then in WMS go
to
configuration to Database Backup and choose the file to be imported.
D. Load the backup configuration directly into MySQL.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A technician is performing an initial configuration on a Wireless Controller (WC).
Which command will accurately set the IP address to 10.127.4S.20 with a 24 bit network mask on a
network with no default gateway.?
A. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway none
B. ip address 10.127.45.20.255.255.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip address 10.127.45.20 255.255.255.0 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
D. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement describes the relationships between AP profile, radio profiles, and network
profiles?
A. Radio profiles refer to AP profile, which in turn refer to network profiles.
B. The AP profile refer to AP profiles for radio specific settings and network profiles for SSID specific
settings.
C. Network profiles refer to AP profiles for mapping SSIDs to APs, and AP profiles refer to radio
profiles
for radio specific settings.
D. The three are linked together in the configuration by mobility profiles which logically map them
to each
other.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician working for a multinational company is using the Captive Portal (CP) features to
localize the welcome screen that company guests see at each location.
What must be done to ensure the correct welcome screen appears at a given site?
A. Copy the correct image to the central http/https server for the Mobility Domain.
B. Customize welcome screen of CP on each Wireless Controller.
C. Set the Remote Authentication Dial in User Service (RADIUS) session-display attribute in the
Guest
group profile to return the configured value of the image file.
D. Set the local database on the wireless Controller to present the image to all unauthenticated
users.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement describes the WLAN 8180 controller AC/DC power specification?
A. It operates only on AC power: 110 - 120 VAC / 60 Hz.
B. The maximum power consumption is 190 Watts.
C. Power over Ethernet (Pot) is supported on the ports in front panel.
D. Wireless Controller (WC) 8180 does not support dual power supply.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A client calls and says that an employee disconnected his laptop docking station and
connected a
wireless router to the LAN using the station's Ethernet cable, and the 8100 system did not detect
the
presence of this unmanaged Access Point (AP). The client has globally enabled RF scanning.
Which two statements describe why the fit no system is behaving in this manner? (Choose two.)
A. The AP deployment is too sparse to allow successful triangulation on the router.
B. The outer is successfully mimicking a known managed AP.
C. The APs are operating at maximum load.
D. The deployment does not include WIDS/WIPS APs.
E. The APs are not configured to scan all channels.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 With WLAN management System (WMS) user role as ROLE_ADMIN , which actions can be
performed?
A. Create new users, create configuration, monitor
B. Create new users, monitor
C. Create configuration, monitor
D. Create new users, create configuration
Answer: C

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Exam Code: QAWI201V3.0
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0)
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Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI
3.0 document (WID)?
A.Advanced
B.Query
C.Active X
D.Interactive
Answer:D

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NO.2 What happens when you drop a dimension into a blank part of a report that contains two blocks,
without the ALT key selected?
A.A new block is created.
B.A new section is created.
C.An error message is displayed.
D.The currently selected cell is displayed.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which two operators are available when using wildcards in a query filter? (Choose two.)
A.LIKE
B.Matches Pattern
C.Not equals Pattern
D.Different from Pattern
Answer:B D

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NO.4 Which message appears when you select "Use query drill" while Scope of Analysis is set in a
BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 report?
A.The Scope of Analysis is empty.
B.The Scope of Analysis is not empty.
C.The query drill mode option is enabled.
D.The query drill mode option is not enabled.
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A.Used when any condition is met by two filters
B.Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C.Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D.Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Answer:B C

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NO.6 Which object types can you merge when using Multi Queries in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A.Dimension - Detail
B.Measure - Measure
C.Dimension - Measure
D.Dimension - Dimension
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which option can you use to convert a table block into a chart in Web Intelligence Rich Client?
A.Right-click the table block and select "Turn To"
B.Click Format > Charts and select "Convert to Chart"
C.Right-click the table block and select "Convert to Chart"
D.Click Tools > Charts and select "Change Table to Chart"
Answer:A

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NO.8 You are working with a previously saved document and you have deleted a logical operator. Which two
methods can you use to recover the logical operator? (Choose two.)
A.Rebuild the filters.
B.Click the Undo button in the Query panel.
C.From the Tools menu, select Recover Operator.
D.Close the Query panel without executing and then open the query.
Answer:A D

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NO.9 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the colors of
your document data?
A.Document Palette
B.Document Formats
C.Display Preferences
D.Data Tracking Options
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which three types of local data files can you use to create a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0
document (WID)? (Choose three.)
A.TXT
B.XML
C.CSV
D.XLS
Answer:A C D

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NO.11 Which three options are valid Page Layout Options in the Properties tab of a document? (Choose
three.)
A.Top margin
B.Left margin
C.Page orientation
D.Background color
E.Visited hyperlink colors
Answer:A B C

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NO.12 Which two panels can you use to purge data from a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document
(WID)? (Choose two.)
A.Query
B.Report
C.Active X
D.Slice and Dice
Answer:A B

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NO.13 Which three elements are parts of a query filter? (Choose three.)
A.Class
B.Object
C.Operator
D.Operand
Answer:B C D

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NO.14 Which two break properties can you use when setting Break Priority? (Choose two.)
A.Order Breaks
B.Vertical Breaks
C.Crosstab Breaks
D.Horizontal Breaks
Answer:B D

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NO.15 Which method should you use to group query filters together to form one AND statement?
A.Drag the queries together
B.Drag the query filters to the Group panel
C.Select the filters, right-click and select Group
D.Select the filters, then click the Group Filters button on the toolbar
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which three calculations can you use in a measure object in Web Intelligence? (Choose three.)
A.Min
B.Max
C.Count
D.Count All
Answer:A B C

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NO.17 Where is a Web Intelligence variable stored?
A.In the cell
B.In the document
C.In the Metadata Cube
D.In the Central Management Server (CMS)
Answer:B

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NO.18 Which two options should you take before you finish creating a variable in Web Intelligence? (Choose
two.)
A.Save
B.Parse
C.Export
D.Validate
Answer:A D

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NO.19 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object should you use
to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A.Sum
B.Detail
C.Measure
D.Dimension
Answer:C

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NO.20 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A.Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B.In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C.Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
D.Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 050-V37
Exam Name: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.2 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.3 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.4 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.5 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.6 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.7 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.8 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.9 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.11 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.12 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.13 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.14 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.15 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.16 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.17 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.18 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.19 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.20 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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Exam Code: 050-V71x-CSESECURID
Exam Name: RSA (RSA SecurID Certified Systems Engineer 7.1x Exam)
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Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 As part of the Primary server installation, the installer automatically backs up certain files
in the RSA Authentication Manager/backup/ directory. These files
A. include the system private key file.
B. hold the contents of the embedded database.
C. are used to install Replica servers and Server Nodes.
D. are deleted after the Primary services successfully start.
Answer: A

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NO.2 If an organization's general security policy specifies that certain RSA SecurID tokens will
be used without a PIN (tokencode only), this can be accomplished by editing the
parameters
A. in the records for individual tokens.
B. in the Realm Authentication Policy.
C. in the Security Domain Token Policy.
D. in the Security Domain Password Policy.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user's password is not
changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security
Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
Answer: C

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NO.4 If manual load balancing has just been set up for an Authentication Agent and it appears
that the Agent is not contacting the desired servers, it might be helpful to verify the
contents of the
A. sdopts.rec file.
B. sdconf.rec file.
C. sdstatus.12 file.
D. sdagent.rec file.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When planning an RSA SecurID system deployment, the Agents that will be required are
dependent on
A. the type of authenticator assigned to users in the system.
B. the variety and type of entry points to a given network or protected resource.
C. the total number of users that exist in all Authentication Manager Security Domains.
D. the communication (port) configurations of any firewalls separating Agent devices and
authentication servers.
Answer: B

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NO.6 To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA
Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
"cn=securid" to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is true about the RSA RADIUS Server in an RSA
Authentication Manager version 7.1 environment?
A. A single RADIUS server can be configured to support multiple realms across a single
Authentication Manager deployment.
B. Once the RADIUS server is installed in an Authentication Manager environment, all
users default to using the RADIUS protocol for authentication.
C. If RADIUS is integrated with an Authentication Manager deployment, all users who
authenticate via RADIUS must be issued an RSA SecurID token.
D. If a RADIUS server is not installed at the same time as a Primary or Replica server, it
can NOT be added later without uninstalling and re-installing the Primary or Replica
software.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is
true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user's account must specify 'sdshell' to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
"securid_pam" as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are
contained in the pam.conf file.
Answer: D

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NO.9 RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B

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NO.10 If the RSA RADIUS server is NOT installed at the time of the RSA Authentication
Manager software installation and the RADIUS function is needed at a later date,
(Choose two)
A. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server through the Operations Console.
B. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server using the add_rad_svr command
line utility.
C. it can be installed on a separate host and connected to the existing Authentication
Manager server.
D. Authentication Agents can be configured to proxy RADIUS transactions without the
need for a RADIUS server
E. it cannot be added to the Authentication Manager server without uninstalling then reinstalling
the server software.
Answer: C E

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