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Exam Code: E20-805
Exam Name: EMC (EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Expert Exam for Techno)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 After three months of operations, the Monday SQL full backup is consistently running longer than the
defined backup window. For compliance purposes a tape backup must be created every Monday.
What would be the most secure way to meet the backup window with the least impact to existing
processes?
A. Change the schedule of the baseline snapshot to run before the Monday SQL full backup. Create the
tape copy from the baseline snapshot.
B. Change the Monday SQL full backup to a differential backup. Copy the differential backup to tape. Run
a SQL full backup only once a month.
C. Change the Monday SQL full backup to back up to a new CIFS share in the VNX. Use NDMP to create
a tape copy from the CIFS share.
D. Change the drive count to increase the aggregate performance of the database so that the Monday
SQL full backup runs faster.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which utility should you recommend to the customer to assist in migrating to the proposed
infrastructure?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware Storage vMotion
C. SAN Copy
D. VMware vMotion
Answer: A

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NO.3 Performance is a major factor in the deployment for the customer. The customer also mentions the
need for a backup solution that minimizes the impact to production. Furthermore, the customer wants
frequent datastore checks to validate integrity.
Which solution supports the customer's goals?
A. Use Replication Manager VSS integration and a VNX clone to create a copy of the production
LUN.
Perform regular database checks against the copy.
B. Use Replication Manager and VNX Snap to create a space-efficient copy.
Perform regular database checks using eseutil.
C. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a VNX clone.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
D. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a space-efficient copy with VNX Snap.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Vblock offering is most appropriate in this scenario?
A. Vblock 0
B. Vblock 1
C. Vblock 1U
D. Vblock 2
Answer: C

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NO.5 Topic 1, Scenario 27
Refer to the Exhibit.
A financial institution is implementing a disaster recovery (DR) solution for their key Oracle databases and
other critical data. RecoverPoint has been chosen as the replication technology to use for the DR solution.
For maximum protection, the replication uses CLR for all Oracle systems; CRR is used for all other data.
The production site uses Sun servers for the Oracle servers and Microsoft Windows Server 2008 hosts for
all other data repositories. Storage arrays for the Oracle servers are Symmetrix arrays. All other data and
business departments store their data on CLARiiON CX4 arrays.
Recently, the human resources and finance departments were migrated to the DMX to enhance security
and performance requirements.
This company also plans to bring in a new acquisition with AIX and VMware servers in the next six months.
The AIX servers will be placed on DMX storage and the VMware servers will be placed on CLARiiON
storage. Both are slated for CDP protection.
The DR site is located 2,500 km away from the production site. A dedicated T3 WAN link runs at 44 Mb/s.
Management and replication traffic will use separate VLANs. Each site contains eight RecoverPoint
appliances (RPAs) to maximize the performance and fault-tolerance business requirements. SANTap is
used for all Oracle splitting, and CX splitters are used for all other data.
To support the actual replication needs, 12 group sets were created to support the consistency within the
Oracle consistency groups. The policies on these sets include an RPO of 15 minutes.
The remainder of the data uses 54 consistency groups with an RPO of two hours.
1.What should be done to improve the performance of the WAN link for replication?
A. Enable QoS for the VLAN with RecoverPoint traffic
B. Set the link speed on the RPA to "max throughput"
C. Enable QoS on the Oracle consistency groups
D. Configure EtherChannel Link Aggregation for use with the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have been asked to design a long-distance replication solution with MirrorView/S. You want to
simulate this Exchange environment and gather the baseline 200 km performance data and additional
simul-ations to perform failover testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. loadgen
B. loadsim
C. EPA
D. JetStress
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the calculator icon in the upper left corner of the screen.
According to EMC best practices, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected 15,000 rpm spindles
needed (155 IOPS) to support the performance profile of the Microsoft Exchange database volumes?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18
Answer: D

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NO.8 The Security Operations team would like a way to quickly mitigate security vulnerabilities that are
reported by networking equipment vendors.
Which solution should be used to identify hospital equipment that is affected by these vulnerabilities?
A. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Network Advisor
B. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Report Advisor
C. RSA enVision
D. Application Discovery Manager
Answer: A

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NO.9 A new VMware customer would like to understand RecoverPoint s additional DR protection levels for
their virtual machines.
What design alterations should you propose?
A. Set up the ESX servers by using a CLR protection method and VMware s SRM functionality for
automated DR response.
B. Implement VMware SRM with the existing CDP configuration to provide automated local recovery.
C. Implement RecoverPoint CDP protection and augment the CDP copy with CLARiiON SnapView
technology.
D. Implement VMware fault tolerance on each VM between the two sites.
Answer: A

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Topic 2, Scenario 21
Refer to the Exhibit.
A customer is migrating from their present DAS solution to a new VNX array. As part of the migration, you
have been tasked with sizing the Microsoft Exchange 2010 environment, specifically sizing the
appropriate IOPS profile for the Exchange mailbox servers.
The customer has profiled the environment and provided you with the data in the exhibit. Each mailbox
store contains 100-120 heavy profile users, and each server has 10-12 mailbox stores. Mailbox limits
have been put in place at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item retention has been left at default values.

NO.10 How would you justify the use of CLARiiON splitters in your design.?
A. To avoid an excessive number of ITLs created on the SANTap splitter
B. To take advantage of the VMware vCenter integration for protected virtual machines
C. To minimize the required hardware purchases if SANTap was used for all splitting
D. To separate the splitter load to reduce the expected high load on the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which tool helps in analyzing the Exchange environment and provides reports on how the environment
compares with current best practices in deploying the Exchange environment?
A. ExBPA
B. Microsoft Windows Performance Monitor
C. loadsim
D. System Attendant
Answer: A

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NO.12 As part of a legal discovery request, the customer must make available a functioning copy of the SQL
environment as it existed at the time of the TLog3 backups. What would be the most efficient way to
restore the SQL server to that point to make the data available?
A. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just before TLog3 backups were completed 2 -
Roll SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
B. 1 - Restore the Monday SQL Server backup 2 - Apply the Tuesday SQL differential backup 3 - Roll SQL
forward by applying TLog3 backups
C. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog3 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL backward by subtracting TLog4 backups
D. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog2 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
Answer: A

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NO.13 How will this solution enable the customer to meet their cost savings objectives?
A. The new infrastructure will dramatically reduce implementation, testing and management efforts.
B. The new infrastructure will provide a centralized, multitenant logical architecture.
C. vStorage APIs will offload work from the hosts, allowing the hosts to scale more efficiently.
D. The highly available architecture with automated remote replication will reduce the frequency and cost
of downtime.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What should be done to throttle the amount of data being sent over the T3 line when new servers are
brought under RecoverPoint control?
A. Use the compression slider settings for best compression within the cluster
B. Use the balance_load CLI commands to distribute the CGs across the RPAs in the cluster evenly
C. Use the compression slider settings for best performance within the cluster
D. Use a combination of Distributed Consistency Group and bandwidth limits on the Oracle CGs in the
cluster
Answer: A

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NO.15 What would you recommend to help ease the workload on the customer s support staff?
A. Provide Remote Operations Services
B. Upgrade the Advanced Management Pod (AMP) to an HA AMP
C. Implement an IP aggregation solution
D. Implement Vblock Traffic Planes
Answer: A

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Topic 5, Scenario 17
Refer to the Exhibit.
A small hospital has a three-tier web application that manages the disbursement of medicine to patients.
Key steps in the process include:
-A doctor at the hospital prescribes medicines to a patient using a handheld device.
-The handheld device connects to the prescription application server through a secure connection
-The application authenticates the doctor's credentials.
-A database records the patient number, doctor's name, and prescribed medicine and dose.
-The prescription order is crosschecked with the patient s history. (That history is entered into a separate
application and database when the patient is admitted to the hospital.)
-If no problems are detected, the order is sent as an email to the hospital pharmacy.
-The pharmacy dispenses the medicine, and prints a label that is crosschecked by the nurse before the
medicine is administered to the patient.
This application, and all applications with which it communicates, must always be available so that
medicine can be given to patients. This means that any problems with the hospital network, application
servers, database servers, or storage arrays must be identified and resolved immediately.

NO.16 Your customer has an RPO of five hours for accounts receivables during the business hours of 8 a.m.
to 6 p.m. The customer's requirement is that a tape copy of a SQL level backup be made to match each
five-hour RPO mark. The creation of the SQL level tape copy must not compromise production server
performance.
To achieve these goals, Step 1 is to use Replication Manager (RM) to create a snapshot at noon and at 5
p.m.
What other steps are required?
A. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
B. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
C. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
D. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
Answer: A

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Topic 4, Scenario 15
A midsized company wants to implement a highly integrated IT infrastructure including storage, network,
compute, and management software resources.
The IT executives think they spend too much time and effort today building, testing, and optimizing
individual components in their infrastructure. They hope to consolidate their existing server-based VDI
environment with 950 desktops, 1000 Microsoft Exchange mailboxes, and homegrown Linuxbased
applications onto a virtualized infrastructure. The goal is to reduce the current costs of their aging best of
breed
HP, Juniper, Brocade, NetApp, and CLARiiON infrastructure.
The company wants the solution to have the following capabilities:
-Built-in high availability and redundancy
-Offsite disaster recovery with automated failover
-Architectural predictability
-Optimized storage, compute, and network
-Predictable and efficient power and cooling usage
-Calculable VM scaling
-Ease of deployment and use
-Rapid provisioning capabilities
-Simplified management
You have recommended implementing cloud services using Vblock architecture.

NO.17 How can you leverage the Replication Manager (RM) infrastructure to securely provide copies of
production SQL data to the software development team?
A. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to schedule their own replications.
B. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to schedule their own
replications.
C. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to create their own replication jobs.
D. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to create their own
replication jobs.
Answer: A

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NO.18 The customer wants to create application-consistent copies of Exchange 2010 and SharePoint 2007
data in a CLR configuration.
What RecoverPoint features would help the customer meet this requirement?
A. KVSS and VDI integration utilities
B. KVSS and Oracle integration utilities
C. SQLSNAP and VDI integration utilities
D. SQLSNAP and TimeFinder integration utilities
Answer: A

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NO.19 You have planned to implement Replication Manager in this environment to manage the backup
requirements.
According to EMC best practices, what prerequisite should you consider?
A. Circular logging must be disabled.
B. Circular logging must be enabled.
C. Transaction logs and database files must be located on the same volume.
D. "Transaction Log location:" and System path location:" for each storage group must be different
Answer: A

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Topic 3, Scenario 13
Refer to the Exhibit.
Your customer s SQL Server environment uses native SQL backup including more granular backups such
as differential backup, as well as transaction logs, to enhance the recovery solution built into the SQL
Server.
This customer also has a software development team that currently updates the development SQL
databases from the nightly production backups. All SQL environments are hosted on VNX iSCSI LUNs.
You propose creating replicas using VNX snaps, as shown in the exhibit. Your proposal includes the
implementation of Replication Manager in this environment.

NO.20 Which disaster recovery solution would best fit the customer s needs for the VMFS datastores?
A. RecoverPoint/SE and VMware Site Recovery Manager
B. Replicator with VMware Site Recovery Manager
C. SRDF with VMware Site Recovery Manager
D. MirrorView/A with VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-018
Exam Name: EMC (Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 290 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 What is the key business goal when consolidating by business application.?
A. Virtualize the compute environment for efficiency
B. Identify security gaps and increase security measures
C. Reduce footprint by decreasing energy and space requirements
D. Implement converged network technology for performance
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has implemented a Vblock solution in their primary data centre. They are using a single
management tool set to configure and provisions the computer, network, and storage resources within the
Vblock.
Which management tool are they using?
A. EMC ControlCenter
B. EMC Unisphere
C. EMC United Infrastructure Manager
D. VMware vCenter
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has asked you to develop a framework for assuming that the cloud Part of this will resume
an assessment development.
Where should you lock first for assessment criteria and technologies?
A. International standards
B. Internal IT development
C. Company metadata
D. Industry best practices
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a key VDC and cloud planning consideration for IT governance?
A. Change management
B. Regulations
C. Separation of duties
D. Creating trust zones
Answer: B

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NO.5 A large company with multiple heterogeneous arrays would like to take advantage of the performance
simplified management benefits of storage virtualization. They have a data center transformation pain that
includes producing power and cooling at a high priority.
Which storage virtualization method would meet their requirements?
A. Network-based storage tiering
B. Vertical storage tiering
C. Server-based storage tiering
D. Horizontal storage tiering
Answer: B

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NO.6 A development organization uses a PaaS service from a public cloud to develop and test an application.
Once sending and verification are complete, the development team discovers that the cloud services
uses proprietary software in the PaaS clustering mailing and deployment of the application within their
production data center imposition without significant application records.
What this type of lock-in called?
A. Geographical lock-in
B. Technology lock-in
C. Cloud lock-in
D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: D

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NO.7 When applying compliance principles to your company s VDC and cloud architectures, how should you
approach your information life cycle management strategy?
A. Data of reset
B. Archival and offsite storage
C. Production and backup
D. Inception to completion
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are three attributes of a cloud services design?
A. Web-based APIs, shared resources, minimal capital expenditures
B. Static service, fixed priced access, improved economics
C. Accessed via a web portal, self-service, throttled access
D. Dedicated resources, usage-based pricing, web-based APIs
Answer: A

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NO.9 When using logging to maintain server security, which is the key element for intrusion detection and
should be contained the server logs?
A. Vulnerability scan that identifies susceptible services that are active on the server.
B. Results of penetration testing through uncover problem probable weaknesses.
C. An entry for each application transaction with details of the organization.
D. Alerts to suspicious activities that require further investigation.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the first phase of the Virtual Data Center Design Process?
A. Evaluate technology options
B. Create plan
C. Perform initial analysis
D. Gather data
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two capacity management objectives often conflict with each other?
A. Manageability and redundancy
B. Availability and security
C. Compliance and efficiency
D. Efficiency and availability
Answer: D

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NO.12 What would you identify as a business application in applying IT as a Service to IT processions?
A. Defined workflow request processes
B. Funded as a cost center
C. Virtual data center best practices
D. SLA-driven management
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is its approach to addressing performance issues during the Virtualize phrase of the cloud
maturity mode?
A. Selective
B. Investigative
C. Proactive
D. Reactive
Answer: D

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NO.14 A midsize company has deployed centralized storage and is currently planning to virtualize their servers.
They have considered their application into Tiers, with Tier 1 application requiring the same service and
performance levels of the current servers.
They have purchased new, high capacity servers for the virtualized environment and are planning to
consolidate several physical servers into a single hypervisor. They are know determining the bandwidth
requirements of the application in order to purchase the current number of FCME CNAs for each server.
The results of their analysis for Tier 1 application are as follows: Average SAN Bandwidth: 3 Gb/s
Average LAN Bandwidth: 2 Gb/s
What is the minimum number of CNAs they would need to install an each server to meet the bandwidth
required for the Tier 1 application while providing CAN redundancy and high availability?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.15 Your client is considering a virtualized data center (VDC) as an investment in process improvement.
A VDC can improve the delivery of which business process?
A. Auditing
B. Business continuity / disaster recovery
C. Compliance
D. Capacity planning / management
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-005
Exam Name: EMC (Backup Recovery Systems and Architecture Exam)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
Answer: A

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NO.4 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Answer: C

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NO.9 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

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NO.10 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.
What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk
space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-895
Exam Name: EMC (Backup Recovery - Avamar Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
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Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 An EMC customer is using NetWorker with integrated Avamar deduplication nodes. They have expired
a large amount of data on the NetWorker server. After several hours, they notice that the index entries
have been deleted from NetWorker. However, data has not been removed from the deduplication node.
What is a potential reason?
A. Garbage collection has not yet occurred on the deduplication node
B. Data must also be manually expired from within Avamar
C. Garbage collection has been suspended on the NetWorker server
D. Saveset metadata has not been purged from the storage node
Answer: A

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NO.2 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being directed to a Data Domain system. The
backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. From Avamar Administrator, the
customer manually deletes the backup.
When is the backup data deleted from the Data Domain system.?
A. Immediately on the Data Domain system
B. Manually deleted on the Data Domain system by the administrator
C. Next time the Avamar system runs garbage collection
D. Next time the Data Domain file system cleaning operation runs
Answer: C

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NO.3 An EMC Avamar customer is currently using a 2 TB Avamar Virtual Edition (AVE) for their backup
environment. They want to begin backing up several Oracle databases and file servers running on a new
ESX server. It is determined that a separate AVE should be added to the backup environment for these
new backups.
What should be done when implementing the new configuration?
A. Install the new AVE on a different ESX server from the first AVE
B. Use thin provisioning to create the new AVE
C. Run benchmark tests for acceptable TCP/IP performance
D. Use RAID 6 for the physical disk storing the new virtual disk
Answer: A

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NO.4 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being written to a Data Domain system. The
Data Domain cleaning schedule runs at 8 A.M. on Tuesday mornings. Avamar maintenance runs daily at
6 A.M. A backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. The customer manually
deletes the backup on Wednesday afternoon using the Avamar Administrator.
When is the space reclaimed on the Data Domain system?
A. At the next Data Domain file system cleaning
B. Immediately on the Data Domain system
C. At the next scheduled Avamar garbage collection
D. When manually deleted from the Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has an EMC Avamar integrated with a Data Domain system as a backup solution. They
would like to use encryption for the backups that are directed to the Data Domain system.
Which method(s) of encryption can be used in this environment?
A. Enable encryption-at-rest on the Data Domain system
B. Enable in-flight encryption between the client and the Data Domain system
C. Both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest are not supported
D. Enable both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has setup their EMC Celerra to backup through an Avamar NDMP Accelerator Node. They
are not seeing any increased performance since the initial backup. They have investigated the Celerra
and there are no outstanding issues.
What is a potential reason for the poor backup performance?
A. Dataset options are set to Level 0
B. Dataset advanced option is blank
C. Data has a high change rate
D. Dataset options are set to Level 1
Answer: A

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NO.7 An EMC employee has been assigned to run securedelete against two clients for a total of 20 GBs on
an Avamar server. During a planning discussion with the customer, they want to know what the impact on
their Avamar server would be while securedelete is running.
What is the correct response to the customer?
A. GSAN will be in admin mode and the Avamar server will be read only
B. Avamar will continue to function with a limited amount of available threads
C. GSAN will be shut down during the extent of the securedelete task
D. Avamar will continue to function without any limitations
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has been performing full backups of their SharePoint farm to an Avamar server. They have
installed the Avamar SharePoint backup client without the GLR feature. They want to perform a restore of
only one web application, but do not want to take any of the SharePoint farm servers offline. What should
be done?
A. Install GLR onto a separate Windows client outside of the farm
B. Install GLR onto the application server to which the web application is to be recovered
C. Install GLR onto all servers of the SharePoint farm
D. Install GLR onto the web front-end server
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer is successfully backing up 50 virtual machines (VMs) hosted on two ESX hosts. There are
two datastores and two proxy servers used for VADP-based backups. They deploy another proxy server
to backup 10 new VMs residing on a new datastore. The backups for the new VMs failed with the
following error:
Event Code: 30931 - Failed to initiate a backup or restore of a virtual machine because no proxy was
found to service the virtual machine. What caused this error?
A. Not enough space is allocated on the proxy server to mount VM snaps
B. Proxy server is not provisioned on the new datastore
C. Proxy host has not been given backup privilege in the vCenter
D. New datastore is not selected for the proxy server in Avamar Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.10 An EMC Avamar backup administrator wants to use their company login account for administering an
Avamar server. The procedures were followed successfully to update the configuration for external LDAP
authentication. However, they still cannot successfully log into Avamar Administrator with the account.
Which action is needed?
A. Assign a default password to the account in Avamar
B. Add the account to the Avamar server O/S
C. Add the user account to Avamar and assign a role
D. Add an Avamar domain with the same name as the LDAP domain
Answer: C

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NO.11 An existing EMC Avamar customer has noticed that garbage collection is not running properly on a
daily basis. The garbage collection logs show the process failing with the MSG_ERR_FULL error each
time it attempts to run. The Avamar Administrator reports the server capacity as 96%.What could be
causing garbage collection to fail?
A. GSAN capacity is over 85%
B. Operating system capacity is over 85%
C. Operating system capacity is over 65%
D. Avamar server has reached the health check limit
Answer: B

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NO.12 A new EMC Avamar customer wants help in setting up their backup groups and schedules. They are
migrating from a traditional tape backup solution with full backups performed once a week and
incrementals in between. They have a regulatory requirement to keep an annual backup for seven years
but want to keep all other backups for one month. Both Microsoft Windows and Linux clients will be
backed up. Based on best practices, what should be recommended?
A. Include all clients in the same group using one dataset and an advanced retention policy
B. Use a separate group for each operating system /retention combination
C. Enable the default group and use that group for all backups
D. Use one group for weekly backups and one for the other days of the week
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has an EMC Avamar system backing up a Celerra running DART 6.0 using a single 36 GB
NDMP Accelerator Node. They are also going to back up a VNX OE 7.0 system using the same NDMP
Accelerator. Each NAS device has four volumes configured on it. Backups will be configured on the
Avamar system for both NAS storage devices to start at the same time.
What will occur when the NDMP backups start using default settings?
A. Both backups will start with two active streams each
B. One NAS device will start its backup with four streams, the other will queue
C. One NAS device will start its backup with one stream, the other will queue
D. Both backups will start with one stream each
Answer: B

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NO.14 An EMC Avamar customer has a Celerra running DART 6.0 with 20 TB of data. There are approximately
10 million files distributed across two Data Movers. They would like to backup the NAS in approximately
five hours. What is the maximum number of streams that can be configured?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.15 An EMC customer has a three-node cluster with the Avamar Windows client installed. Each node has
the Avamar Exchange 2007 plug-in installed. What should be done to avoid backing up the same data
multiple times within a backup window?
A. Exclude virtual node file systems from the physical node dataset
B. Ensure the Quorum drive is backed up only once per week instead of nightly C. Ensure both the
physical and virtual nodes are in the same Avamar group
D. Verify that the Exchange database backup is not scheduled at the same time as the file system backup
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-555
Exam Name: EMC (Isilon Solutions and Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
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Total Q&A: 225 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 An Isilon customer expressed an interest in more effectively managing their storage.
Specifically, they would like to plan for future growth.
Which tool would allow the customer to forecast capacity requirements?
A. InsightIQ
B. Isilon SNMP MIB
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartPools
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer uses an existing Isilon cluster consisting of five NL-Series nodes to source
broadcast media files for playback and streaming.The customer reports that the playback pauses
and stutters regularly. It has been confirmed that there are no network or playback system issues.
Which of the choices listed is the appropriate choice to address the playback issues?
A. Add three or more S-Series Nodes
B. Upgrade OneFS to the latest version
C. Enable SmartConnect Advanced
D. Enable Level 2 Caching
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the maximum volume or aggregate size that can be created with an Isilon Scale-Out
NAS system?
A. 16 TB
B. 100 TB
C. 2.3 PB
D. 20 PB
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Media and Entertainment company is considering changing from 2K resolution to 4K
resolution. They will continue to use the DNxHD 220 codec.
Assuming everything else stays the same, how will this change affect storage?
A. Storage will be half as large
B. Storage requirements will not change
C. Storage will be twice as large
D. Storage will be four times as large
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does Isilon OneFS use to re-write data when a disk read fails?
A. Dynamic Sector Repair
B. NVRAM
C. Isilon Data Integrity
D. CRC
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is making a decision between Isilon and a competitor's offering. They currently
have 100TB of usable capacity and are forecasting 100% growth per year for the next three years,
which will require them to lease additional space in their co-located data center. The CFO finds ROI
and TCO to be important decision criteria.
Which statement best emphasizes the value of Isilon for this customer?
A. Isilon's OneFS data protection policies offer substantially lower overhead than competitive RAID
based NAS solutions.
B. An IDC study found that Isilon requires 95% less down time hours per year compared to other
competitors.
C. The competition cannot offer a scale-out NAS so as capacity is added to the array, performance
may degrade.
D. Isilon's OneFS allows administrators to manage much larger amounts of capacity than
competitive offerings.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer created one month of snapshots; one snapshot every 8 hours for 30 days on an
Isilon cluster using SnapshotIQ. They are now deleting the snapshots randomly and experiencing
overhead to the cluster.
How can the snapshots be removed while avoiding the overhead caused by this process?
A. Delete the snapshots in order
B. Use SmartPools to move the snapshot data to a different tier
C. Snapshots cannot be deleted
D. Remove the directory
Answer: A

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NO.8 At a minimum, how many connected and available nodes are required to maintain quorum in
a 25-node cluster?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 17
Answer: C

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NO.9 An Isilon customer created a scheduled SyncIQ policy to replicate data from an
Enterprise-mode SmartLock directory. The source cluster is now unusable and the target cluster
does not automatically allow writes to the data in the replicated SmartLock directory.
What is the reason why the target cluster did not automatically allow writes of the data?
A. SyncIQ Automated failover is not supported for SmartLock directories; however, manual failover
is allowed.
B. Automated failover and manual failover are not allowed on SmartLock directories on the target
cluster.
C. A SyncIQ job was running while the source cluster became unusable, thereby removing all data
on the target directory.
D. SnapshotIQ was not licensed on the target cluster; the snapshot of the directory is not available
for use by SyncIQ.
Answer: A

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NO.10 -- Exhibit -
We have been engaged by a research hospital to help upgrade their Isilon installation.
They currently have 12 previous generation Isilon nodes with 200TB of capacity and run on a 1Gbps
network.
They currently have 6 Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers and an HPC cluster to process data.
They would like to expand Isilon to 2PB of active data and 1PB of archive data.
They use a third party data and metadata management service (IRODs) to stage data for analysis.
The Isilon cluster is mainly used for analysis work with the HPC cluster.
-- Exhibit -
The customer will add two more Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers in the next 6 months.
Once these are added, what is the total amount of data from all the sequencers they can expect to
add per month?
A. 9.6 TB
B. 4.8 TB
C. 1.2 TB
D. 14.4 TB
Answer: A

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NO.11 An Isilon customer has an environment supporting a wide range of different workloads. They
want to assign clients to performance tiers based on the resources needed.
What can the customer use to meet this requirement?
A. SmartConnect Zones
B. Load Balancing
C. Client Connection Zone
D. SmartPools Advanced
Answer: A

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NO.12 A NetApp customer is considering Isilon. They use their filers for UNIX home directories, and
would like to see a suggested configuration that would meet their needs.
What would you do to help size this cluster?
A. Ask for an autosupport file and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
B. Ask them to install InsightIQ and collect data from the filer, then import to SQL for analysis
C. Ask for the output from nfsstat and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
D. Use tcpdump and upload the output file to MiTrends to generate a protocol analysis
Answer: C

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NO.13 If Isilon SmartConnect is being configured in a customer environment, which records are
required for a supported implementation?
A. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a zone delegation for the SmartConnect zone
delegated to the SSIP
B. An overloaded host record with each SmartConnect zone member's IP address and an SRV record
to provide resolution services
C. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a corresponding PTR record for each SmartConnect
zone
D. A SOA record for the SmartConnect Service IP and a corresponding CNAME record for each
SmartConnect zone
Answer: A

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NO.14 -- Exhibit -
A large manufacturing company is an existing Isilon customer with a cluster consisting of four NL400
nodes with 4TB drives. The cluster is using N+2:1 protection level and the file system shows that it is
60% utilized. Home directories and file shares comprise 75% of the existing content and the
remainder is inactive deep archive. The company has 1,000 employees using Windows and Mac
clients participating in a single Active Directory (AD) forest.
During a meeting with the CIO and Director of IT you discuss the company's recent acquisition - an
engineering firm that specializes in Computer Aided Design (CAD). The engineering firm has 400
UNIX workstations that produce technical drawings which are currently stored on another vendor's
SAN solution. The all UNIX environment uses NIS for authentication and name resolution. They do
not currently use DNS or LDAP . The engineering company has an old storage system that has been
experiencing problems and the CIO would like you to migrate the data onto the Isilon cluster. The
CIO would like to eliminate all tape and recover the data onto disk.
The CIO is concerned about security of the company's intellectual property, especially with the rapid
adoption of mobile devices and external cloud content sharing services such as DropBox, Egnyte,
and SugarSync. They would like to implement an alternative that provides external file sharing and
mobile device synchronization while maintaining security control over the company's data.
The Director of IT reports that users are storing non-work related content on the Isilon cluster. They
would like to limit the amount of capacity that each user can consume in their home directory and
want to ensure you provide the capability to easily visualize which users are over their
allotment.The company's Windows users currently leverage Windows Shadow Copy to recover files
that have been accidentally deleted. The IT department wants to ensure that Mac and incoming
UNIX clients have the same functionality.
The Director of IT also mentions that users are reporting slow response times when browsing their
home directories and shared folders. They are concerned that Isilon cannot scale to support their
combined requirements.
-- Exhibit -
Based on the meeting with the customer, which Isilon cluster configuration would you recommend?
A. 4 x X400 nodes with 2 x SSD and 34 x 4TB drives 1 x Additional NL400
B. 6 x X400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives 1 x Backup Accelerator
C. 4 x NL400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives
D. 9 x S200 nodes with 2 x SSD and 22 x 900GB SAS
Answer: A

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NO.15 When an Isilon SyncIQ replication job completes, how many SnapshotIQ policies can be
created on a target cluster directory?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.1 TCP SYN Flood attack uses the three-way handshake mechanism.
An attacker at system A sends a SYN packet to victim at system B.
System B sends a SYN/ACK packet to victim A.
As a normal three-way handshake mechanism system A should send an ACK packet to system B,
however, system A does not send an ACK packet to system B. In this case client B is waiting for an ACK
packet from client A.
This status of client B is called _________________
A. "half-closed"
B. "half open"
C. "full-open"
D. "xmas-open"
Answer: B

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NO.2 The following script shows a simple SQL injection. The script builds an SQL query by concatenating
hard-coded strings together with a string entered by the user: The user is prompted to enter the name of a
city on a Web form. If she enters Chicago, the query assembled by the script looks similar to the following:
SELECT * FROM OrdersTable WHERE ShipCity = 'Chicago'
How will you delete the OrdersTable from the database using SQL Injection?
A. Chicago'; drop table OrdersTable -
B. Delete table'blah'; OrdersTable -
C. EXEC; SELECT * OrdersTable > DROP -
D. cmdshell'; 'del c:\sql\mydb\OrdersTable' //
Answer: A

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NO.3 SYN Flood is a DOS attack in which an attacker deliberately violates the three-way handshake and
opens a large number of half-open TCP connections. The signature of attack for SYN Flood contains:
A. The source and destination address having the same value
B. A large number of SYN packets appearing on a network without the corresponding reply packets
C. The source and destination port numbers having the same value
D. A large number of SYN packets appearing on a network with the corresponding reply packets
Answer: B

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NO.4 What type of attack is shown in the following diagram?
A. Man-in-the-Middle (MiTM) Attack
B. Session Hijacking Attack
C. SSL Spoofing Attack
D. Identity Stealing Attack
Answer: A

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NO.5 Joel and her team have been going through tons of garbage, recycled paper, and other rubbish in order
to find some information about the target they are attempting to penetrate. How would you call this type of
activity?
A. Dumpster Diving
B. Scanning
C. CI Gathering
D. Garbage Scooping
Answer: A

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NO.6 More sophisticated IDSs look for common shellcode signatures. But even these systems can be
bypassed, by using polymorphic shellcode. This is a technique common among virus writers ?it basically
hides the true nature of the shellcode in different disguises.
How does a polymorphic shellcode work?
A. They encrypt the shellcode by XORing values over the shellcode, using loader code to decrypt the
shellcode, and then executing the decrypted shellcode
B. They convert the shellcode into Unicode, using loader to convert back to machine code then executing
them
C. They reverse the working instructions into opposite order by masking the IDS signatures
D. They compress shellcode into normal instructions, uncompress the shellcode using loader code and
then executing the shellcode
Answer: A

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NO.7 You run nmap port Scan on 10.0.0.5 and attempt to gain banner/server information from services
running on ports 21, 110 and 123.
Here is the output of your scan results:
Which of the following nmap command did you run?
A. nmap -A -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
B. nmap -F -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
C. nmap -O -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
D. nmap -T -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
Answer: C

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NO.8 How do you defend against Privilege Escalation?
A. Use encryption to protect sensitive data
B. Restrict the interactive logon privileges
C. Run services as unprivileged accounts
D. Allow security settings of IE to zero or Low
E. Run users and applications on the least privileges
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.9 How do you defend against ARP Spoofing? Select three.
A. Use ARPWALL system and block ARP spoofing attacks
B. Tune IDS Sensors to look for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
C. Use private VLANS
D. Place static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following countermeasure can specifically protect against both the MAC Flood and MAC
Spoofing attacks?
A. Configure Port Security on the switch
B. Configure Port Recon on the switch
C. Configure Switch Mapping
D. Configure Multiple Recognition on the switch
Answer: A

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NO.11 Jack Hacker wants to break into Brown Co.'s computers and obtain their secret double fudge cookie
recipe. Jack calls Jane, an accountant at Brown Co., pretending to be an administrator from Brown Co.
Jack tells Jane that there has been a problem with some accounts and asks her to verify her password
with him ''just to double check our records.'' Jane does not suspect anything amiss, and parts with her
password. Jack can now access Brown Co.'s computers with a valid user name and password, to steal
the cookie recipe. What kind of attack is being illustrated here?
A. Reverse Psychology
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Social Engineering
D. Spoofing Identity
E. Faking Identity
Answer: C

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NO.12 What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?
A. Source Quench
B. Destination Unreachable
C. Time Exceeded
D. Unknown Type
Answer: C

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NO.13 Jimmy, an attacker, knows that he can take advantage of poorly designed input validation routines to
create or alter SQL commands to gain access to private data or execute commands in the database.
What technique does Jimmy use to compromise a database.?
A. Jimmy can submit user input that executes an operating system command to compromise a target
system
B. Jimmy can gain control of system to flood the target system with requests, preventing legitimate users
from gaining access
C. Jimmy can utilize an incorrect configuration that leads to access with higher-than expected privilege of
the database
D. Jimmy can utilize this particular database threat that is an SQL injection technique to penetrate a target
system
Answer: D

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NO.14 This type of Port Scanning technique splits TCP header into several packets so that the packet filters
are not able to detect what the packets intends to do.
A. UDP Scanning
B. IP Fragment Scanning
C. Inverse TCP flag scanning
D. ACK flag scanning
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are the security administrator of Jaco Banking Systems located in Boston. You are setting up
e-banking website (http://www.ejacobank.com) authentication system. Instead of issuing banking
customer with a single password, you give them a printed list of 100 unique passwords. Each time the
customer needs to log into the e-banking system website, the customer enters the next password on the
list. If someone sees them type the password using shoulder surfing, MiTM or keyloggers, then no
damage is done because the password will not be accepted a second time. Once the list of 100
passwords is almost finished, the system automatically sends out a new password list by encrypted e-mail
to the customer.
You are confident that this security implementation will protect the customer from password abuse.
Two months later, a group of hackers called "HackJihad" found a way to access the one-time password
list issued to customers of Jaco Banking Systems. The hackers set up a fake website
(http://www.e-jacobank.com) and used phishing attacks to direct ignorant customers to it. The fake
website asked users for their e-banking username and password, and the next unused entry from their
one-time password sheet. The hackers collected 200 customer's username/passwords this way. They
transferred money from the customer's bank account to various offshore accounts.
Your decision of password policy implementation has cost the bank with USD 925,000 to hackers. You
immediately shut down the e-banking website while figuring out the next best security solution
What effective security solution will you recommend in this case?
A. Implement Biometrics based password authentication system. Record the customers face image to the
authentication database
B. Configure your firewall to block logon attempts of more than three wrong tries
C. Enable a complex password policy of 20 characters and ask the user to change the password
immediately after they logon and do not store password histories
D. Implement RSA SecureID based authentication system
Answer: D

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NO.16 This IDS defeating technique works by splitting a datagram (or packet) into multiple fragments and the
IDS will not spot the true nature of the fully assembled datagram. The datagram is not reassembled until it
reaches its final destination. It would be a processor-intensive task for IDS to reassemble all fragments
itself, and on a busy system the packet will slip through the IDS onto the network. What is this technique
called?
A. IP Routing or Packet Dropping
B. IDS Spoofing or Session Assembly
C. IP Fragmentation or Session Splicing
D. IP Splicing or Packet Reassembly
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following type of scanning utilizes automated process of proactively identifying
vulnerabilities of the computing systems present on a network?
A. Port Scanning
B. Single Scanning
C. External Scanning
D. Vulnerability Scanning
Answer: D

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NO.18 Lori is a Certified Ethical Hacker as well as a Certified Hacking Forensics Investigator working as an IT
security consultant. Lori has been hired on by Kiley Innovators, a large marketing firm that recently
underwent a string of thefts and corporate espionage incidents. Lori is told that a rival marketing company
came out with an exact duplicate product right before Kiley Innovators was about to release it. The
executive team believes that an employee is leaking information to the rival company. Lori questions all
employees, reviews server logs, and firewall logs; after which she finds nothing. Lori is then given
permission to search through the corporate email system. She searches by email being sent to and sent
from the rival marketing company.
She finds one employee that appears to be sending very large email to this other marketing company,
even though they should have no reason to be communicating with them. Lori tracks down the actual
emails sent and upon opening them, only finds picture files attached to them. These files seem perfectly
harmless, usually containing some kind of joke. Lori decides to use some special software to further
examine the pictures and finds that each one had hidden text that was stored in each picture.
What technique was used by the Kiley Innovators employee to send information to the rival marketing
company?
A. The Kiley Innovators employee used cryptography to hide the information in the emails sent
B. The method used by the employee to hide the information was logical watermarking
C. The employee used steganography to hide information in the picture attachments
D. By using the pictures to hide information, the employee utilized picture fuzzing
Answer: C

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NO.19 If a competitor wants to cause damage to your organization, steal critical secrets, or put you out of
business, they just have to find a job opening, prepare someone to pass the interview, have that person
hired, and they will be in the organization.
How would you prevent such type of attacks?
A. It is impossible to block these attacks
B. Hire the people through third-party job agencies who will vet them for you
C. Conduct thorough background checks before you engage them
D. Investigate their social networking profiles
Answer: C

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NO.20 Anonymizer sites access the Internet on your behalf, protecting your personal information from
disclosure. An anonymizer protects all of your computer's identifying information while it surfs for you,
enabling you to remain at least one step removed from the sites you visit.
You can visit Web sites without allowing anyone to gather information on sites visited by you. Services
that provide anonymity disable pop-up windows and cookies, and conceal visitor's IP address.
These services typically use a proxy server to process each HTTP request. When the user requests a
Web page by clicking a hyperlink or typing a URL into their browser, the service retrieves and displays the
information using its own server. The remote server (where the requested Web page resides) receives
information on the anonymous Web surfing service in place of your information.
In which situations would you want to use anonymizer? (Select 3 answers)
A. Increase your Web browsing bandwidth speed by using Anonymizer
B. To protect your privacy and Identity on the Internet
C. To bypass blocking applications that would prevent access to Web sites or parts of sites that you want
to visit.
D. Post negative entries in blogs without revealing your IP identity
Answer: B,C,D

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