IBM 000-783J PDF 「000-783日本語版」

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Exam Code: 000-783J
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureFlex Technical Support V2 (000-783日本語版))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 顧客は IBM i5 /OS V5R4 を実行する複数 の IBM POWER5 サーバ ーを持っています。彼ら
は PureFlex p260 計算 ノードの上にこれらのサーバーを統合することを望んいます。変更を
行うことの利点は何でしょうか。
A. OS ゕップグレードは必要とされない
B. VMware の内の IBM i5 /OS を実行する
C. SMT4 はコゕにつき 4 つのスレッドを許す
D. ゕップグレードさ れた IO プロセッサが利用可能である
Answer: C

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NO.2 顧客は p460 ソリ ューションを購入し、 必要に応じて時間にわたって複数のコゕを入手
したいと考えています。 最初に顧客は 16 コ ゕを必要とし、 時間にわたって 32 のコゕに 増加
する必要を要求します。 以下のどれがこのニーズを満たすために購入されなければなりませ
んか。
A. 32 コゕのサーバ、 ま た 16 のコゕを無効にする。 必要に応じてコゕを再ゕクテゖブ化する。
B. 16 コゕ P460、より 多くが必 要とされるときに追加の 16 コゕを追加するには、MES を実
行する。
C. 活発な 16 のコゕを持った 32- コゕ? サーバ 。 時間にわたって求められるより多くのコゕを
活性化するために CUoD を使用する。
D. 活発な 16 のコゕを 持った 32- コゕ? サーバ 。 追加のコゕの必要に応じて、 複数のコゕを有
効にするには CoD を使用する。
Answer: A

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NO.3 PureFlex 見通しは、x86 計算ノード上の vMotion の同等である 電源計算ノード機能が何
かを尋ねます。次のどれが同等ですか。
A. Live Partition Mobility
B. Virtual IO Server (VIOS)
C. Live Application Mobility
D. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
Answer: A

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NO.4 AIX を実行してい るパワー顧客は、彼らが POWER7 750 から PureFlex に AIX オペレーテ
ゖング· システム環境のベゕメタルの移行を実行する方法を尋ねます。 顧客は AIX の現行バー
ジョンの上にいます。下記のどれがこのタスクを達成しますか。
A. mksysb 復元
B. DVD からの BOS ゗ンストール
C. ストレージ? コピー? サービス
D. Tivoli ストレージ? マ ネージ ャー
Answer: A

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NO.5 見通しは冗長ス ゗ッチと NIC チーミングを必要とします。
見通しは、 デフォルトの IBM PureFlex ラボサービスの実装が何を含んでいるかについて懸念
しています。
NIC チーミングのセットゕップを冗長なス゗ッチで含む最小限の提供は以下のどれですか。
A. Flex システム
B. PureFlex エクスプレ ス
C. PureFlex 標準
D. PureFlex エンタープラ゗ズ
Answer: D

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NO.6 顧客は PureFlex Express を考慮していま すが、 彼らは自分のラックを使用すると主張し
ます。
下記のどれが PureSystem 技術専門家のための正確なレスポンスですか。
A. PureSystem ノード は RPQ を備えた BladeCenter H で゗ンストールされるかもしれない。
B. シャシーは PureFlex に特有の IBM ラックに゗ンストールする必要がある。
C. シャシーは BladeCenter に特有の IBM ラッ クに゗ンストールされることができる。
D. 顧客は non PureSystem ラックを使用するかもしれないが、それは推奨方法ではない。
Answer: D

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NO.7 技術専門家は、 新しい PureFlex フゔンデーション実装ののリスクを識別し、削減する
必要があります。下記のどれが技術専門家のための IBM の要件ですか。
A. TDA を実行するため に SME に会う
B. 財務計画を調査す るために CFO に会う
C. 実施計画を調査す るために IBM ストレージ? スペシャリストに会う
D. PureFlex 実施計画を調査?? するために IBM クラ゗ゕント? エグゼクテゖブに会う
Answer: A

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Exam Code: LOT-404
Exam Name: IBM (Developing Enterprise Mobile Applications with IBM Worklight and IBM WebSphere Portal)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which is a true statement regarding Responsive Web Design (RWD) and IBM WebSphere
Portal?
A. A web application using RWD can be published to all supported appstores.
B. A hybrid or native application is needed in order to be able to support RWD concepts.
C. RWD itself is a practical solution to the shifting landscape of devices and screen sizes.
D. Accessing native features of a device is not possible when using RWD with WebSphere Portal.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two statements are true regarding the IBM Worklight API? (Choose two.)
A. The Worklight API does not allow a developer to pass data from native to web or web to native.
B. Worklight provides a native API to communicate with the Worklight Server from the native page.
C. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from native to web but not web to native.
D. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from web to native but not native to web.
E. The Worklight API allows navigation to native pages and back, including the passing of data back
and forth.
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 Where is the correct place to define a Responsive Web Design breakpoint, for example
@media screen, in order to handle the different device sizes on the devices browser?
A. on the default.jsp of the portal theme
B. in the JavaScript of the web container of the mobile device
C. only in hybrid mobile applications can breakpoints be defined
D. in the CSS of the theme for the IBM WebSphere Portal server
Answer: D

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NO.4 Mary plans to develop hybrid or native mobile applications with IBM Worklight, specifically for
iOS devices. What will she need to do to accomplish this?
A. She must install IBM Worklight on an iOS device.
B. She must be a part of the iOS developer program, so that the use of Xcode is optional.
C. She must download Xcode, which is an Apple IDE for developing iOS and Mac applications.
D. As long as Xcode is used, iOS applications can be developed on any modern operating system
(Windows, Linux, Mac OS).
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which scope should be used if the skin relies specifically on code within the theme or has a
specific function that is only useful in that particular theme?
A. Global
B. Private
C. Static-based
D. Theme-based
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is WebDAV used for in IBM WebSphere Portal?
A. to deploy static resources
B. to register themes and skins
C. to deploy dynamic resources
D. to start the embedded client application
Answer: A

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NO.7 What functionality does the IBM Worklight Server provide when Worklight and IBM
WebSphere Portal are used together?
A. The Worklight Server is not used in the architecture.
B. The Worklight Server provides push notifications for the application.
C. The Worklight Server handles all data connections for the application.
D. The Worklight Server must be installed on the same server as WebSphere Portal.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which API is used to create a REST interface?
A. HTTP
B. JAX-RS
C. JSR 168
D. JSR 286
Answer: B

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NO.9 How can media queries combine multiple conditions?
A. using the symbol "&"
B. by an iteration with ??by an iteration with ?
C. by nesting with brackets
D. using keywords "and", "or", "not"
Answer: D

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NO.10 Christine has created an IBM Web Experience Factory project and would like to add the
Multichannel Feature Pack for Web Experience Factory 8.0 to her project. How can she accomplish
this?
A. Install the Web Experience Factory 8.0.0.2 Fix Pack.
B. Modify the override.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
C. Modify the bowstreet.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
D. Right-click on the Web Experience Factory project and select the Import > Web Experience
Factory Archive command.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which event listener is used in an IBM WebSphere Portal theme to detect if a page is loaded
on a mobile device?
A. isWebView
B. isMobileDevice
C. onDeviceReady
D. onMobileDevice
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which three needs can be met with an IBM Worklight-only application approach? (Choose
three.)
A. offline use
B. app store presence
C. authentication management
D. access to mobile native features
E. use of existing IBM WebSphere Portal environment
F. personalization driven by IBM Web Content Manager content
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Which two themes are included in the Multichannel Feature Pack for IBM Web Experience
Factory 8.0? (Choose two.)
A. iOS
B. Tablet
C. Android
D. Portable
E. Smartphone
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 Which kind of feed does the REST API accept?
A. XML
B. Web
C. RSS
D. Atom
Answer: D

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NO.15 IBM WorkLight Studio is supported and can be installed on which operating systems?
A. Windows
B. Windows, Mac OS, Linux
C. Microsoft Windows, Linux
D. Linux, Mac OS, Windows, Android
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N45
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Information Server for Data Integration Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is a valid Write Table action in the Connector Stages?
A. Append
B. Replace
C. Truncate
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement about Metadata Workbench is incorrect?
A. It can extend data lineage to display data integration flows that are outside of Information Server
B. It relies on the repository functions in DataStage Designer for impact analysis
C. It displays data lineage reports
D. It allows Metadata Workbench administrators to associate data stewards with data objects
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where are Table Definitions stored?
A. Information Server metadata repository
B. In the file system as a binary file
C. In the file system as a csv file
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.4 In a Job Sequence, what is the purpose for the use of Checkpoints?
A. Monitor performance and failure for each stage
B. Automatically restart a job
C. Record the log information for each trigger
D. Restart a job from the latest Checkpoint in case of job failures
Answer: D

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NO.5 For the Information Server Repository, which Relational Database Management System (RDMS)
CANNOT be used?
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Informix
C. DB2 UDB
D. Oracle
Answer: B

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NO.6 In DataStage, which client can be used to set environment variables at project level?
A. DataStage Designer
B. DataStage Administrator
C. DataStage Director
D. Information Server Web Console
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which type of Join would you select for the Join Stage to output unmatched records from both
input data sources?
A. Inner join
B. Left outer join
C. Right outer join
D. Full outer join
Answer: D

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NO.8 Using a Job Sequence, which of the following tasks CANNOT be performed?
A. Define specific user variables and make them available within a Job Sequence
B. Drop a database table using a script, then start two different parallel jobs in sequence when a file
appears in a specific directory
C. Run two different parallel jobs in sequence and use job parameters to pass different
$APT_CONFIG _FILE values for each of them
D. Create multiple Exception Handlers stages to handle different types of failures
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-S13
Exam Name: HP ( HP BladeSystem Class Solutions I)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 151 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which types of drives are supported by the HP BladeSystem c-Class storage blades? (Select two.)
A. SCSI
B. Serial ATA (SATA)
C. Parallel ATA (PATA)
D. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
E. Fibre Attached Technology Adapted (FATA)
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding the HP StorageWorks Ultrium 448c Tape Blade? (Select three.)
A. The tape blade provides direct-attach data protection for the adjacent server blade.
B. The tape blade provides network backup protection for all data within the enclosure.
C. The tape blade installs in a full-height device bay of either the c3000 or c7000 enclosure.
D. The tape blade installs in a half-height device bay of either the c3000 or c7000 enclosure.
E. The tape blade and the SB40c storage blade can both partner with the same full-height server blade.
F. The tape blade can partner with any of the HP BladeSystem c-Class ProLiant or Integrity server blades.
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 Ten fans are installed in a fully populated c7000 enclosure and are configured as AC Redundant. All
server blades are powered on. What happens if one fan fails? (Select three.)
A. The fan subsystem health status remains OK.
B. The health LED of the failed fan illuminates red.
C. The health LED of the failed fan illuminates solid amber.
D. The fan subsystem health status changes to FAILED.
E. The fan subsystem health status changes to DEGRADED.
F. The Onboard Administrator increases the fan RPM to maximum.
G. The Onboard Administrator begins to shut down the least active server blades.
Answer: CEF

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NO.4 How will the HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosures indicate if a server blade is not installed in the correct
device bay?
A. The HP BladeSystem Insight Display will flash blue.
B. The interconnect will display errors when you configure it.
C. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the enclosure to power on.
D. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the interconnects to power on.
E. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the incorrectly placed server blade to power on.
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which statements describe how the Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) management processor receives its
power in the HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosure? (Select two.)
A. iLO receives its power through a connection to the server.
B. iLO receives its power through an independent connection.
C. iLO can be activated through Virtual Power from a remote server.
D. iLO receives redundant power in the event of a power supply failure.
E. iLO can be activated even if the server is not connected to a power source.
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Which statements correctly describe the integrated management functionality of HP SIM and HP
BladeSystem c-Class environments? (Select three.)
A. The redundant Onboard Administrator module cannot automatically take over control of the enclosure
until the primary Onboard Administrator module fails.
B. For added security, you must specify your user name and password when accessing the server blade
iLOs from the Onboard Administrator GUI.
C. The Onboard Administrator includes status information from the server blade agents and therefore
displays the same server blade status in its GUI as HP SIM.
D. HP SIM reports the Onboard Administrator modules, server blades, and server blade iLOs separately
because each has its own IP address and its own instrumentation.
E. Both the primary and redundant Onboard Administrator modules share the same IP address, thereby
enabling transparent failover for HP SIM and other management clients.
F. You can change which Onboard Administrator module is active and which is standby by logging in to
the standby Onboard Administrator module user interface and changing its setting.
Answer: ADF

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NO.7 Which HP BladeSystem c-Class components are covered by the HP 3-year parts, 3-year labor, and
3-year on-site limited global warranty? (Select three.)
A. server blades
B. c7000 enclosures
C. c3000 enclosures
D. SAS and SATA disk drives
E. Ethernet and SAN interconnect switches
F. Ethernet and Fibre Channel Pass-Thru modules
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 What are the features of the HP Customer Self-Repair program? (Select three.)
A. HP ships the replacement part directly to the customer.
B. The customer is responsible for replacing the faulty part.
C. HP ships the replacement part to an authorized partner closest to the customer.
D. The customer diagnoses the issue and determines whether a replacement part is required.
E. The program is available for HP products that are under warranty but not covered by a service
contract.
F. An HP support specialist diagnoses the problem and determines whether a replacement part is
necessary.
Answer: ABF

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NO.9 Which functions does the Onboard Administrator perform in the BladeSystem c-Class? (Select two.)
A. It manages connections to the interconnect modules.
B. It activates Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails.
C. It automates the process of deploying server operating systems and software.
D. It drives all management features through the Inter-Integrated Circuit (I2C) and Intelligent Chassis
Management Bus (ICMB) interfaces.
Answer: AD

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NO.10 To utilize all four Ethernet ports on the NC325m PCIe Quad-Port 1Gb Server Adapter, which
mezzanine position must you avoid?
A. mezzanine position 1 in full-height server blades
B. mezzanine position 2 in full-height server blades
C. mezzanine position 3 in full-height server blades
D. mezzanine position 1 in half-height server blades
E. mezzanine position 2 in half-height server blades
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which statements describe the function of the Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. It enables automated provisioning of the HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades.
B. It provides I2C and ICMB management interfaces to all HP BladeSystem c-Class components.
C. It consolidates 16 iLO 2 ports in the c7000 enclosure and 8 iLO 2 ports in the c3000 enclosure.
D. It creates a LAN-based or SAN-based abstraction layer between the server blades and the external
LAN/SAN.
Answer: BC

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NO.12 From which sources can you configure individual iLO management processors? (Select three.)
A. from an FTP server
B. through a scripted setup
C. from the HP Management CDROM
D. through virtual Keyboard/Video/Monitor (KVM)
E. remotely through a browser-based Web interface
F. locally using the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
Answer: BEF

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NO.13 Which statements are true regarding the BladeSystem? (Select two.)
A. BladeSystem c-Class and p-Class server blades will not ship until 2009.
B. The c-Class interconnects are compatible with the p-Class interconnects at a management interface
level.
C. c-Class server blades can be installed in a p-Class enclosure with an enclosure upgrade kit.
D. p-Class and c-Class server blades are compatible with industry-standard Web Based Enterprise
Management (WBEM).
E. The Onboard Administrator can manage both p-Class and c-Class enclosures.
Answer: BD

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NO.14 How can the Onboard Administrator show a health status different from the status displayed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. The passive Onboard Administrator might have been activated through the user interface without
notifying HP SIM.
B. The active Onboard Administrator status does not include information from the agents running on the
server blades.
C. The active Onboard Administrator might indicate a failure that HP SIM displays in the event log rather
than in the health status.
D. The passive Onboard Administrator does not send a trap to HP SIM indicating a change of state when
it activates after a failure.
E. Because of an Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) configuration error, iLO might have indicated different health
states to the Onboard Administrator and to HP SIM.
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Which statement correctly describes Insight Control Data Center Edition (ICDCE)?
A. all-in-one Linux-hosted blade management and deployment software package
B. integrated suite of software that simplifies the provisioning, management, and recovery of
BladeSystem infrastructures
C. HP SIM 5.1 plug-in that adds remote monitoring and warranty, HP Care Pack, and contract entitlement
features to HP SIM
D. server deployment solution that facilitates the installation, configuration, and deployment of
high-volumes of servers through either a GUI-based or a Web-based console, using either scripting or
imaging technology
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which role-based Virtual Connect Manager access enables you to create, edit, and delete Virtual
Connect profiles?
A. Server
B. Admin
C. Storage
D. Domain
E. Networking
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which HP software is included with Insight Control Data Center Edition (ICDCE) and can be installed
as an option in the ICDCE installation but must be licensed separately? (Select two.)
A. Server Migration Pack (SMP)
B. Remote Support Pack (RSP)
C. Virtual Machine Management (VMM) Pack
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM) Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
In a four-fan configuration, where must these fans be installed?
A. bays 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. bays 1, 2, 3, and 5
C. bays 2, 4, 5, and 6
D. bays 3, 4, 5, and 6
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are configuring the MSA1000 storage solution to boot from a SAN. Although there are several
physical drives reported in the ACU graphical user interface, the Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
link is missing. Why?
A. The ACU has detected multiple paths from the host.
B. The MSA1000 does not have any logical drives defined.
C. An incorrect MSA1000 device driver is loaded in the host server.
D. The host server is not running the HP Insight Agents, or these agents are outdated.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statements are true when using the HP StorageWorks SB40c storage blade for c-Class?
(Select three.)
A. Each SB40c storage blade can partner with only one server blade.
B. A c7000 enclosure can have a maximum of eight SB40c storage blades.
C. The SB40c storage blade supports Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) drives only.
D. A full-height storage blade can connect to a maximum of two SB40c storage blades.
E. Each SB40c storage blade requires an HP PCI Express Mezzanine Pass-Thru card to be installed in
mezzanine slot 3 of the full-height storage blade.
F. If connecting both the SB40c storage blade and the Ultrium 448c tape blade to the same full-height
server blade, the SB40c storage blade must be installed in the top bay.
Answer: ABE

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NO.1 You will connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to port 8 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl.
Which configuration step will enable the switch to auto-configure the appropriate VLAN for the phone??
A. Enable LLDP-MED in the VLAN 1 configuration context.
B. Configure port 8 as a tagged member of a voice VLAN.
C. Enable LLDP-MED in the configuration context for a voice VLAN.
D. Define port 8 as an LLDP-MED port in the global configuration context.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You must design an IP addressing scheme for a network that must support 16 different types of users,
each with
different resource and security requirements. What is an advantage of ensuring that the number of
networks assigned to
each type of user is a power of 2?
A. It enables automatic summarization at classful boundaries.
B. It minimizes the number of VLANs required to support each type of user.
C. It ensures that an adequate number of IP addresses will be available for each type of user.
D. It simplifies summarization because all networks for each type of user can be summarized in a single
routing statement.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which condition is necessary to enable a group of networks to be auto-summarized by a ProCurve
Switch 3500yl?
A. The address ranges to be summarized must be within different OSPF areas.
B. The address ranges to be summarized must be within a classful network boundary.
C. The address ranges to be summarized must be directly connected to a neighbor router.
D. The address ranges to be summarized must be accessible through a neighbor router interface.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the advantages of implementing IP routing technologies at the network edge? (Select two.)
A. provide per-user QoS
B. decrease the load on network core
C. eliminate the need for routing protocols
D. create smaller, localized broadcast domains
E. enhance support for default gateway redundancy
Answer: BD

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NO.5 You must determine if the default settings on ProCurve 5406zl switches will provide adequate QoS for
a multimedia training application. What must you learn about the application in order to make this
determination?
A. if it recognizes IGMP joins from receivers
B. if it uses TCP or UDP as a transport protocol
C. if it inserts Layer 2 or Layer 3 priority markers
D. if it supports Guaranteed Minimum Bandwidth
Answer: C

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NO.6 When does a router use administrative distance to determine which route to include in its route table?
A. when the router learned about multiple routes with equal-cost paths to the same destination
B. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using the
same routing protocol
C. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different routing protocols
or static configuration
D. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is a difference between voice traffic and video traffic?
A. Voice traffic is typically more difficult to route than streaming video traffic.
B. Voice traffic is typically more sensitive to delay than streaming video traffic.
C. Voice traffic is typically less sensitive to jitter than streaming video traffic.
D. Voice traffic is typically more bandwidth-intensive than streaming video traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the role of an OSPF Area Border Router?
A. to connect multiple non-backbone areas
B. to connect a backbone area to non-backbone areas
C. to connect OSPF domains with domains that use other routing protocols
D. to connect a backbone area to the backbones of other OSPF routing domains
Answer: B

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NO.9 How many priority levels are specified by the IEEE 802.1p standard?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8 D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.10 While analyzing network traffic using a port monitor on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, you notice that
many packets have an 802.1p value of 1. If the switch has default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
B. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
C. Another device has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
D. Another device has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You must configure QoS on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl in the core layer of a network. One interface on
the switch receives traffic that uses only Layer 3 markers to indicate priority. What must you do to enable
the switch to forward this traffic with correct priority?
A. Set the QoS trust level to the appropriate value.
B. Enable the appropriate interpretation of the IP ToS field.
C. Configure port-based priorities for all ports forwarding this traffic.
D. Configure custom IEEE 802.1p maps for all ports forwarding this traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the difference between administrative distance and cost?
A. Administrative distance is applied only to routes learned through OSPF. Cost applies to RIP routes as
well as OSPF routes.
B. Administrative distance indicates the distance to remote networks learned through routing protocols.
Cost applies static routes and directly connected networks.
C. Administrative distance is determined solely through interactions among routers that share a routing
protocol. Cost can be defined by the administrator of each router.
D. Administrative distance is a locally significant value that can be used to break ties between routes
learned from different sources. Cost is a cumulative metric that indicates the number of hops to a remote
network.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the effect when the following command is entered at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-111)#qos priority 2
A. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with normal priority.
B. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with lower than normal priority.
C. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with higher than normal priority.
D. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will retain the priority marker set by another device.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Under what condition does the IEEE 802.1p field provide end-to-end prioritization?
A. All switches can classify traffic based on DSCP.
B. Source and destination hosts are in the same VLAN.
C. The network is experiencing high levels of congestion.
D. All links in the path between source and destination are tagged.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You enter the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl:
3500.l(config)#ip route 22.0.0.0/8 172.16.100.100
However, when you enter show ip route to confirm your entry, no route to 22.0.0.0/8 appears in the route
table. Which
statement explains this condition?
A. The interface connected to 172.16.100.100 is down.
B. The switch has learned another route to 22.0.0.0/8 through OSPF.
C. The route table already includes a default route using 172.16.100.100.
D. The switch has not been configured with an IP address of 172.16.100.100.
Answer:A

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NO.16 While analyzing network traffic, you notice that many packets have an 802.1p value of 0. On a
ProCurve switch with default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. No prioritization settings are in effect on the network.
B. The traffic will be mapped to the normal priority queue.
C. The network relies on Layer 3 classification technologies
D. The network is not using the default settings on ProCurve switches.
Answer: B

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NO.17 When does an LLDP-enabled switch start sending LLDP advertisements?
A. when QoS is enabled
B. when IP multicast is enabled
C. immediately after it has started
D. when it receives an LLDP request from a neighbor
Answer: C

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NO.18 By default, what type of route is redistributed in RIP updates by ProCurve ProVision ASIC switches?
A. static
B. default
C. OSPF
D. connected
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is an advantage of locating routing intelligence at the edge of an enterprise network instead of in
the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
B. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and other protocols for default gateway redundancy.
C. The edge-oriented strategy enables ACLs and other traffic filters to be applied before traffic traverses
any part of the network.
D. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies summarization because each router must support VLANs only
for directly connected users.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?
A. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.
B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.
C. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.
D. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-207
Exam Name: HP (Procurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 While using the CLI to configure a ProCurve switch, you must move from the global
configuration level to the port context configuration level for port a1. Which command do you use?
A.port a1
B.ethernet a1
C.interface a1
D.configure a1
Correct:C

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NO.2 At a customer site, you have configured four ProCurve switches for HP Switch Meshing and
Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol. How will the mesh appear to non-mesh switches in the same
spanning tree domain?
A.as a single device
B.as a set of devices without redundant links
C.as devices that cannot participate in the spanning tree
D.as a set of devices with spanning tree enabled to block redundant links
Correct:A

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NO.3 You are configuring a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to obtain time information from an SNTP server
located on a different IP network than the switch. Which configuration steps are necessary on the
switch to enable this functionality?
A.The switch cannot be configured to obtain time information from a server on a different IP network.
B.Define a default gateway for the switch, enable SNTP, use the sntp server command to enter the IP
address of the server.
C.Assign a port on the switch to a VLAN that includes the SNTP server, enable SNTP, configure the
switch for SNTP unicast mode.
D.Configure an IP address on the same IP network as the SNTP server, enable TimeP, configure the
switch for SNTP broadcast mode.
Correct:B

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NO.4 You must remotely manage a customer's switch using Telnet. Which configuration/monitoring
interfaces are available? Select TWO.
A.web interface
B.menu interface
C.ProCurve Manager
D.boot monitor interface
E.command line interface
Correct:B E

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NO.5 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? Select THREE.
A.mobility
B.security
C.reliability
D.availability
E.upgradeability
F.convergence
G.cost-effectiveness
Correct:A B F

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NO.6 While using the CLI to configure a ProCurve switch, you must change context from the manager
level to the global configuration level. Which command do you use?
A.exit
B.write
C.global
D.enable
E.configure
Correct:E

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NO.7 You have been asked to configure IGMP on a ProCurve Switch 6200yl at a customer site. What
are the steps for enabling IGMP on the switch?
A.Enter the manager level, then issue the ip igmp command.
B.Enter the global configuration context, then issue the ip igmp command.
C.Enter the VLAN context for each VLAN that will support IGMP, then issue the ip igmp command.
D.Enter the interface configuration context for each port configured with a VLAN, then issue the ip igmp
command.
Correct:C

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NO.8 What are the key principles of the Adaptive EDGE architecture? Select TWO.
A.Control to the Edge
B.Control to the Desktop
C.Command from the Center
D.Management from Anywhere
E.Security throughout the Network
Correct:A C

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NO.9 How do ProCurve switches, configured with link aggregation (also known as port trunking),
handle broadcast traffic?
A.Broadcast traffic is flooded through all of the ports in the trunk.
B.The switch sends a query and receives permission from potential receivers before flooding.
C.Broadcast traffic is handled in exactly the same way it would be without port trunking configured.
D.Broadcast traffic is flooded through non-trunked ports, but forwarded only through one of the ports in
the trunk.
Correct:D

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NO.10 You are about to configure HP Switch Meshing on four ProCurve switches at a customer site.
All of the ports that will be included in the mesh are configured for membership in customer
VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the VLAN configuration?
A.The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
B.The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until you manually configure its VLAN assignments.
C.The mesh ports will not be 802.1Q-compliant and will only be able to retain membership in a single
untagged VLAN.
D.The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
Correct:A

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NO.11 You are implementing a fully connected HP Switch Mesh at a customer site. Which statement
describes a valid design guideline for HP Switch Meshing?
A.A switch may be connected to no more than four mesh domains.
B.Up to five Switch 5400zl Series switches can be included in a full mesh.
C.All links in a full mesh must operate at the same speed and use the same media type.
D.When a switch is configured for HP Switch Meshing protocol, all of the ports on that switch must
participate in the mesh.
Correct:B

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NO.12 While examining the spanning tree configuration on a ProCurve switch, you notice that one of
the ports is in the Blocking state. Which statement describes how this port will function in this
state?
A.The port is completely blocked for all purposes.
B.The switch will not forward user traffic through that port, but will forward telnet traffic.
C.The switch will not forward user traffic through that port, but will forward BPDUs through that port.
D.The switch forwards user traffic through that port, but does not receive user traffic through that port.
Correct:C

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NO.13 On switches that support the Switch Setup screen interface, which parameters can be
configured on the Switch Setup screen? Select TWO.
A.STP bridge priority
B.IP address of the TACACS+ server
C.system name and contact information
D.IP address and subnet mask for each VLAN
E.IP address and subnet mask for the default VLAN
Correct:C E

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NO.14 You must update the software on a customer's ProCurve Switch 5412zl. Which statement
correctly describes the process for this operation? Select TWO.
A.Use TFTP for direct serial transfer of the software.
B.Use FTP for in-band transfer of the software through an IP network.
C.Use TFTP for in-band transfer of the software through an IP network.
D.Transfer the software from your workstation using a direct serial transfer.
E.Instruct the switch to search for any available TFTP server without knowing its IP address.
Correct:C D

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NO.15 A customer is planning a Power over Ethernet deployment for a large call center that will use
VoIP telephones. While planning the wiring closets for the deployment, the customer suggests
using the uplink ports of a ProCurve Switch 2650-PWR to provide power to a ProCurve Switch
2600-8-PWR. Which statement describes a correct response to this suggestion?
A.It is only possible if the second switch is a ProCurve Switch 2626-PWR.
B.It is not possible because the 2600-8-PWR cannot act as a Powered Device.
C.It is only possible if the customer adds a ProCurve 600 EPS/RPS to the first switch.
D.It is not recommended because the second switch will not have adequate power redundancy.
Correct:B

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NO.16 You are installing a ProCurve switch at a customer site and must enable remote management
for network administrators. Which configuration parameter is necessary to ensure that
administrators can manage the switch even if they are on different IP networks?
A.default VLAN
B.default gateway
C.default password
D.default management profile
Correct:B

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NO.17 You configured Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol on four ProCurve Switch 5348xl switches at a
customer site. During the configuration, you forgot to configure the switches so that
switch-to-switch links are not defined as edge ports. Which statement describes the consequence
of your oversight?
A.The switches in the spanning tree will elect multiple Root bridges.
B.The switches will reject the spanning tree configuration and block all ports until the configuration is
corrected.
C.The switches will be unable to elect a Root bridge and will not be able to forward traffic until the
configuration is corrected.
D.The switches will require more time to elect the Root bridge and resolve the topology, but the spanning
tree will otherwise function normally.
Correct:D

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NO.18 You are about to update the software on a ProCurve switch. Which command do you use to view
a list of all software versions stored on the switch?
A.show run
B.show flash
C.show startup
D.show version
Correct:B

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NO.19 You are assigned to configure ProCurve switches at a customer site for in-band management.
Which are in-band management methods? Select TWO.
A.Telnet
B.SNMP
C.XMODEM
D.serial console
E.menu interface
Correct:A B

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NO.20 How is traffic prioritization accomplished with IEEE 802.1p?
A.802.1Q-compliant devices enforce priorities based on VLAN ID.
B.802.1Q-compliant devices set one of 8 values in a 3-bit field in the VLAN tag.
C.802.1Q-compliant devices set one of 64 values in a 6-bit field in the IP datagram header.
D.802.1Q-compliant devices dedicate a portion of available bandwidth to each prioritized conversation.
Correct:B

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NO.1 Which command, entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch, saves the switch's running configuration to
its startup configuration?
A. write config
B. save startup-config
C. write memory
D. save running-config
E. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which ports configured on a ProCurve switch are equivalent to the access ports on a Cisco Systems
switch?
A. edge ports
B. LAG ports
C. untagged ports
D. tagged ports
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which privilege level is indicated by this prompt in the CLI of a ProCurve switch?
Switch_1A#
A. manager
B. operator
C. global configuration
D. viewer
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the effect of issuing the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5400zl(config)# include-credentials
A. Management passwords and user names will be displayed in the running configuration.
B. Local management user names and passwords will be stored on the configured RADIUS server.
C. The switch will send and require authentication information for all SNMP communications.
D. User names and passwords will be required for all management access.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. ProCurve Manager
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. web interface
Answer: AC

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NO.6 A ProCurve Switch 8212zl must be configured to be the ABR for OSPF areas 0 and 5. While
implementing this configuration, you enter the following command at the switch's CLI:
8212.l(ospf)#area 5 stub 2 no-summary
How will this affect the route tables of other routers in area 5?
A. Only directly connected routes will be listed.
B. Every route known to the 8212zl will be listed with a separate gateway and cost.
C. The only OSPF route will be the interface with the 8212zl.
D. All networks outside area 5 will be summarized as a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.7 In ProCurve Manager Plus, which user type can configure and manage network devices but cannot
add, delete, or modify user accounts?
A. operator
B. viewer
C. manager
D. administrator
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement is correct about the support for LLDP offered by ProCurve switches?
A. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system names and MAC addresses of neighbors.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. LLDP is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
D. When routing is enabled, LLDP is automatically disabled because LLDP messages cannot be
transmitted over routed interfaces.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You configured untagged port members of VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl.
Additionally, you assigned IP addresses to interfaces in both VLANs. While testing the configuration, you
discover that nodes in the two VLANs cannot ping each other. The nodes are configured correctly and
connected to the correct ports.
What must be done on the 8212zl to enable communication between the nodes?
A. Disable ICMP blocking.
B. Enable IP routing.
C. Add connected ports to both VLANs.
D. Define a default gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You must configure a ProCurve switch to help protect a customer network from malicious users who
might attempt to exhaust the address pool of the company's DHCP server. Which ProCurve feature will
help to address this vulnerability?
A. DHCP snooping
B. Dynamic ARP protection
C. built-in DHCP server
D. DHCP relay
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. CLI Wizard
B. Switch Update Wizard
C. Configuration Wizard
D. IP Networking Wizard
E. Network Services Wizard
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which VLAN configuration parameters must be reviewed when a network user group relocates to an
office facility with a new network setup? (Select two.)
A. VLAN membership for other workstations in the group's new facility
B. VLAN membership for the switch ports that will provide connectivity for the group's workstations
C. IP addressing for the default VLAN on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
D. VLAN membership for the uplink port on the switch that will provide connectivity between the group
and resources connected to other switches
E. VLAN membership of the default gateway on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
Answer: BD

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NO.13 What is the default username and password for the ProCurve Manager Management Server?
A. username: Manager
password: password
B. username: Administrator
password: admin
C. username: Manager
password: value configured during installation
D. username: Administrator
password: value configured during installation
E. username: value configured during installation
password: value configured during installation
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which features are available in ProCurve Manager Plus, but not in ProCurve Manager? (Select two.)
A. alerts notification
B. automatic discovery
C. network topology mapping
D. scheduled software updates
E. CLI device management
F. traffic analysis
Answer: DF

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NO.15 You must configure password protection for read/write access to the CLI of a ProCurve switch. Which
command is necessary to complete this task?
A. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password operator
B. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password manager
C. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password administrator
D. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password port-access
Answer: B

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Which command enables the ProCurve Switch 3500yl-24G to execute the config2 configuration file
shown in the exhibit?
A. erase config1
B. copy config2 flash primary
C. config active config2
D. boot system flash secondary
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5406zl# configure terminal
A. The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B. The CLI echoes user input to the terminal.
C. The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
D. The CLI provides an interface for configuring terminal variables such as line length.
Answer: A

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NO.18 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which ProCurve devices will be automatically discovered by ProCurve Manager?
A. devices in the 5406zl LLDP neighbor table
B. devices in the 192.168.1.0/24 network
C. devices in all networks in the 5406zl route table
D. devices in all networks directly connected to the 5406zl
Answer: B

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NO.19 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which step must be taken to enable ProCurve Manager to discover devices in networks other than
192.168.1.0/24?
A. Perform a Manual Discovery for each VLAN configured on the 5406zl.
B. Import the subnet address ranges from the 5406zl routing table.
C. Configure ProCurve Manager to receive SNMP traps from devices in the networks.
D. Add the other networks to the Managed Subnets list in Discovery Preferences.
Answer: D

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NO.20 You must define a hostname on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl. Which configuration context must you enter
to perform this task?
A. manager
B. interface configuration
C. operator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.21 At a customer site, a network technician notices that a device deleted from the Navigation Pane in
ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) reappears after two days. How can the technician prevent this behavior?
A. Disable LLDP on the device.
B. Delete the device's subnet from the Managed Subnets list.
C. Configure PCM+ discovery options to ignore the device's VLAN.
D. Add the device to the Excluded Devices list.
Answer: D

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NO.22 What is the effect of entering the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-100)#interface a1
A. Port A1 is enabled.
B. The CLI enters the configuration context for port A1.
C. Port A1 becomes a tagged member of VLAN 100.
D. The CLI displays the status of port A1.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which steps are necessary before enabling SSL on a ProCurve switch? (Select two.)
A. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
B. Import a certificate from a Certificate Authority.
C. Generate a self-signed server certificate.
D. Disable unencrypted Web-based management.
E. Generate public and private keys.
Answer: CE

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NO.24 Which statement is correct about the discovery features of ProCurve Manager (PCM) with ProCurve
Manager Plus (PCM+)?
A. PCM+ enables the scheduling of auto-discovery; PCM requires users to initiate discovery manually.
B. PCM+ and PCM use identical discovery processes.
C. PCM+ supports discovery based on LLDP, CDP and FDP; PCM supports discovery based only on
CDP and FDP.
D. PCM+ will discover devices from manufacturers other than HP; PCM will only discover ProCurve
devices.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which methods are used by ProCurve Manager Plus to discover manageable devices? (Select three.)
A. scans TCP ports
B. pings to detect replies
C. scans for ProCurve SNMP identifiers
D. reads ARP table
E. tests for Telnet access
F. listens for LLDP messages
Answer: BDF

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NO.26 Port a1 on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl is a tagged member of VLAN 20. Which devices can
communicate through this port? (Select two.)
A. a port on another switch that is a tagged member of VLAN 20
B. a port on another switch that is an untagged member of VLAN 20
C. an end station that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
D. a port on another switch that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
E. an 802.1Q-compliant end station that is a member of VLAN 20
Answer: AE

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NO.27 You must enable IP routing at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl, but can remember only that the
command begins with "ip." Which command provides context-sensitive help?
A. 3500yl# ip[ENTER]
B. 3500yl# ip/?[ENTER]
C. 3500yl# help ip[ENTER]
D. 3500yl# ip?[ENTER]
E. 3500yl# ip[TAB]
Answer: E

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NO.28 You must specify network management parameters for ProCurve switches scheduled to be installed
at a customer site. Which two features are offered by SNMPv3, but are not offered by SNMPv1 or
SNMPv2c? (Select two.)
A. configurable trap receiver ports
B. TCP-based message flow control
C. access control based on IP address or DNS name
D. encrypted communications
E. access restrictions based on user identity
Answer: DE

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NO.29 Which authentication methods are supported by the SSH service on ProCurve switches? (Select
three.)
A. MAC-Auth
B. 802.1X
C. Kerberos
D. local user name and password
E. public key
F. RADIUS
Answer: DEF

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NO.30 Which methods can be used to update the ProCurve Switch 5412zl software using the CLI? (Select
two.)
A. FTP over IP connection
B. TFTP over serial port connection
C. direct serial port transfer
D. TFTP over IP connection
E. SNMPv3 transfer over IP connection
Answer: CD

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