2013年10月31日星期四

Oracle 1Z0-531 study guide

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Exam Code: 1Z0-531
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Essbase 11 Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Identify four disadvantages / considerations when using a transparent partition.
A. Old data
B. Slow retrievals
C. Slow calculations if referencing dynamic calc members in the source
D. Outline sync complexities
E. Increased network load
F. Downtime required to sync data
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.2 Which six files are involved in database recovery for block storage option after a database crash?
A. Essn.pag
data
B. Essn.ind
index
C. Essn.dat
D. Temp.dat
E. Dbname.esm - kernel file that contains control information for db recovery
F. Dbname.tct - transaction control table
G. Dbname.ind - free fragment file for data and index free fragments
H. DBname.otl
I. Metadata folder
Answer: A,B,E,F,G,H

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NO.3 Identify the two true statements about incremental loading.
A. Allows for real time data access for end users.
B. Creates *subscribes* along the main slice in the database.
C. Materialization of slices is required to provide users the correct query results.
D. Different materialized views may exist within a slice as compared to the main slice of the database.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 You have the following analysis requirement. Products roll up to Product Family which rolls up to
Product Category. You also need to group Products by Product Manager. Product Managers may manage
one or more Products across product families. You do not need to create reports with Product Manager by
Product Family. You need to secure products by Product Manager for planning submissions.
You consider Shared members as a solution because of which two options?
A. Shared members provide cross tab reporting (Product Manager in the rows and Product Familyacross
the column)
B. Shared members provide additional categorization but results in a smaller database then if youwere to
add Product Manager as a separate dimension
C. You can assign security to shared members
D. Shared members can be assigned to sparse members only
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Moving a stored entity member in a sparse dimension causes_________.
A. a Full restructure
B. an Index restructure
C. an Outline restructure
D. No restructure
Answer: C

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NO.6 Assuming Sales and Year are sparse and Actual is dense, what two actions will the following calc script
perform?
A. Export the data for actual, current year, sales into a text file called data.txt
B. Export the data for actual, current year into a text file called data.txt
C. Export data blocks in a compressed encrypted format
D. Create a text file that can be imported using the DATAIMPORTBIN calc command in another database
that has different dimensionality
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 You should back up the following three for ASO.
A. Hyperion_Home \common
B. Essbaseinstallfolder\bin
C. ARBORPATH \app\appname
D. Essbaseinstallfolder \locale
E. Essbase.sec
F. Essbase.cfg
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.8 Market size is an attribute dimension with the following members: Large, Medium, and Small.
Which of the following options below represent valid syntax statements in a calc script?
A. FIX (@ATTRIBUTE(Large))
B. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, "Market Size");
C. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, Market Size);
D. FIX(Large)
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which two options would provide a better design for the following accounts and metrics.?
A. If there are a small number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and
Metrics into 2 dimensions
B. If there are a large number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and
Metrics into 2 dimensions
C. If reporting dictates FTE and dollars in the columns and accounts in the rows, split Accounts and
Metrics into 2 dimensions
D. If block size is large, then keep Accounts and Metrics as one dimension with a dense dimension
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 A calculation script is performed on a database for which Create Block on Equation is OFF. The
command SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON is issued immediately before an equation in the script.
Which statementsaccurately describewhen blocks will be created? (Choose two)
A. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns non-constant values to members of a sparse
dimension
B. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns constant values to members of a sparse
dimension
C. Blocks will be created when the equation assigns either constant or non-constant values to members
of a spare dimension.
D. No blocks will be created.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-547
Exam Name: Oracle (Sun Storage 7000 Unified Storage Systems Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What does the term "outlier elimination" that is used in the 7000-series system mean?
A. Truncating chronological data
B. Removing inactive client sessions
C. Throttling throughput with busy clients
D. Blocking errant processes
E. Cropping the highest data points from view
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which Command Line Interface (CLI) command provides hardware status details?
A. Maintenance hardware show
B. Hardware status is not available through the CLI
C. Status hardware show
D. Status dashboard hardware
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two statements regarding thin provisioning are true?
A. The property for thin provisioned may only be set on a LUN
B. The property for thin provisioned may be set on a share or LUN
C. A LUN that is thinly provisioned will only represent to the host the physical amount of space used
D. A thinly provisioned LUN will represent to the host the defined LUN size, and not the actual physical
space used
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Log devices are designed to improve the performance of asynchronous write workloads.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three statements are true?
A. One share can have multiple protocol access to its data
B. The identity mapping feature can manage Windows and UNIX user Identities simultaneously on the
same share.
C. All shares within one project can share common settings.
D. Snapshot and Replication can be done at the share level only.
E. One of the share properties that protects the share against accidental deletion of the share is read
only.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 Which two items are the correct and supported ways to add user accounts to the 7000-series system?
A. Editing/etc/passwd and/etc/shadow
B. After logging in to the BUI as root, click the Maintenance: Users: Add User via the plus (+) sign and fill
out the blanks; click Apply.
C. Using ssh, add users via the CLI by configuration users create . Set the properties, and commit.
D. Using ssh, add users via the CLI by configuration users user newname
where newname is the new
userID to be added.
E. From the BUI as root, click Configuration: USERS: plus(+) sign to add a new user and fill out the blanks;
click add.
F. Add user accounts in active directory, LDAP, or NIS. User accounts don t usually need to be added to
the 7000.
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 Which three are supported methods for viewing system statistics?
A. Analytics
B. Solaris stat tools: iostat(1M), vmstat(1M), and so on
C. Appliance CLI
D. Oracle SunPlex Manager
E. SNMP
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 Which three items are available via the Status Dashboard in the Browser User Interface (BUI).?
A. Summary of storage pool and main memory usage
B. Known hardware faults
C. Status of each physical network port
D. Status of services on the appliance
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 What type of I/O workload is likely to get the most benefit from read SSDs?
A. Random write
B. Random read
C. Sequential read
D. Sequential write
E. Mixed random and sequential write
Answer: B

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NO.10 Enterprise solid state devices (SSDs) based on Mash technology are a critical component of the
7000-series systems. Which statement is true?
A. Flash technology completes operations as fast as, or better than, DRAM.
B. Enterprise SSDs support bad block management, wear leveling, and error correction codes (ECC) for
data integrity
C. Read-optimized SSDs are used in place of NVRAM to host the ZFS Intent Log (ZIL)
D. Write-based SSDs are used to extend the ZFS cache (L2ARC) for reads and writes
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-859
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 5 Web Component Developer Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)
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Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 response.addCookie(c);
B. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);
11. c.setHttps(true);
12. c.setMaxAge(10368000);
13. response.setCookie(c);
C. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);
11. c.setSecure(true);
12. c.setMaxAge(10368000);
13. response.addCookie(c);
D. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);
11. c.setHttps(true);
12. c.setAge(10368000);
13. response.addCookie(c);
E. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);
11. c.setSecure(true);
12. c.setAge(10368000);
13. response.setCookie(c);
Answer: C

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11.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place the events in the order they occur.
Answer:
12.You are creating a servlet that generates stock market graphs. You want to provide the web browser
with precise information about the amount of data being sent in the response
stream.Which two HttpServletResponse methods will you use to provide this information?
(Choose two.)
A. response.setLength(numberOfBytes);
B. response.setContentLength(numberOfBytes);
C. response.setHeader("Length", numberOfBytes);
D. response.setIntHeader("Length", numberOfBytes);
E. response.setHeader("Content-Length", numberOfBytes);
F. response.setIntHeader("Content-Length", numberOfBytes);
Answer: B,F

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13.Which two prevent a servlet from handling requests? (Choose two.)
A. The servlet's init method returns a non-zero status.
B. The servlet's init method throws a ServletException.
C. The servlet's init method sets the ServletResponse's content length to 0.
D. The servlet's init method sets the ServletResponse's content type to null.
E. The servlet's init method does NOT return within a time period defined by the servlet container.
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 c.setAge(10368000);

NO.3 Given:
Which statement, at line 16, retrieves an InputStream for the file /WEB-INF/myresrc.bin?
A. new InputStream("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin");
B. ctx.getInputStream("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin");
C. ctx.getResourceAsStream("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin");
D. new InputStream(new URL("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin"));
E. getClass().getResourceAsStream("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin");
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer is designing a multi-tier web application and discovers a need to log each incoming client
request. Which two patterns, taken independently, provide a solution for this problem.? (Choose two.)
A. Transfer Object
B. Service Locator
C. Front Controller
D. Intercepting Filter
E. Business Delegate
F. Model-View-Controller
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Given an HttpServletRequest request and HttpServletResponse response, which sets a cookie
"username" with the value "joe" in a servlet?
A. request.addCookie("username", "joe")
B. request.setCookie("username", "joe")
C. response.addCookie("username", "joe")
D. request.addHeader(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
E. request.addCookie(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
F. response.addCookie(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
G. response.addHeader(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
Answer: F

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NO.6 Your company has a corporate policy that prohibits storing a customer's credit card number in any
corporate database. However, users have complained that they do NOT want to re-enter their credit card
number for each transaction. Your management has decided to use client-side cookies to record the
user's credit card number for 120 days.
Furthermore, they also want to protect this information during transit from the web browser to the web
container; so the cookie must only be transmitted over HTTPS. Which code snippet creates the
"creditCard" cookie and adds it to the out going response to be stored on the user's web browser?
A. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);

NO.7 Given the relationship:
The tag handler MyTag extends SimpleTagSupport. At runtime, the doTag method throws a
SkipPageException.Which three events occur after the SkipPageException is thrown?
(Choose three.)
A. Evaluation of page2.jsp stops.
B. Evaluation of page1.jsp stops.
C. The MyTag instance is NOT reused.
D. Evaluation of page2.jsp continues.
E. Evaluation of page1.jsp continues.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 c.setSecure(true);

NO.9 For a given ServletResponse response, which two retrieve an object for writing text data? (Choose two.)
A. response.getWriter()
B. response.getOutputStream()
C. response.getOutputWriter()
D. response.getWriter().getOutputStream()
E. response.getWriter(Writer.OUTPUT_TEXT)
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Given a web application in which the request parameter productID contains a product identifier.
Which two EL expressions evaluate the value of the productID? (Choose two.)
A. ${productID}
B. ${param.productID}
C. ${params.productID}
D. ${params.productID[1]}
E. ${paramValues.productID}
F. ${paramValues.productID[0]}
G. ${pageContext.request.productID}
Answer: B,F

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NO.11 For an HttpServletResponse response, which two create a custom header? (Choose two.)
A. response.setHeader("X-MyHeader", "34");
B. response.addHeader("X-MyHeader", "34");
C. response.setHeader(new HttpHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
D. response.addHeader(new HttpHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
E. response.addHeader(new ServletHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
F. response.setHeader(new ServletHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Which two are valid values for the <transport-guarantee> element inside a <securityconstraint> element
of a web application deployment descriptor? (Choose two.)
A. NULL
B. SECURE
C. INTEGRAL
D. ENCRYPTED
E. CONFIDENTIAL
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 Given an HttpSession session, a ServletRequest request, and a ServletContext context, which
retrieves a URL to /WEB-INF/myconfig.xml within a web application?
A. session.getResource("/WEB-INF/myconfig.xml")
B. request.getResource("/WEB-INF/myconfig.xml")
C. context.getResource("/WEB-INF/myconfig.xml")
D. getClass().getResource("/WEB-INF/myconfig.xml")
Answer: C

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NO.14 Given the function invocation expression ${my:reverse("42")}, and that the function reverse is mapped
into a Java method called reverse, which two are valid signatures for the Java method reverse? (Choose
two.)
A. public int reverse(String val)
B. public String reverse(String val)
C. public static int reverse(String val) D. public static String reverse(int val)
D. private static double reverse(double val)
E. public int reverse(String value, String name)
F. public static int reverse(int value, String name)
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 Which three are true about the HttpServletRequestWrapper class? (Choose three.)
A. The HttpServletRequestWrapper is an example of the Decorator pattern.
B. The HttpServletRequestWrapper can be used to extend the functionality of a servlet request.
C. A subclass of HttpServletRequestWrapper CANNOT modify the behavior of the getReader
method.
D. An HttpServletRequestWrapper may be used only by a class implementing the
javax.servlet.Filter interface.
E. An HttpServletRequestWrapper CANNOT be used on the request passed to the
RequestDispatcher.include method.
F. An HttpServletRequestWrapper may modify the header of a request within an object
implementing the javax.servlet.Filter interface.
Answer: A,B,F

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Exam Code: 1Z0-878
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 System Administrator Certified Professional Exam, Part II)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 356 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 You are configuring a jumpstart server, as part of that configuration you need to add some files after
the install completes. Select from the list the file that will contain the name of a script that will run upon
completion of the jumpstart installation.
A. rules file
B. profile file
C. sysidcfg file
D. postconfig file
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which answer best describes the LDAP bind operation?
A. Create a LDAP search operations and authenticates the operation
B. Create a new directory entry, provides a DN and authenticates
C. Creates a RDN entry in the Server for a directory and authenticates
D. Authenticates a client to the server, provides a DN
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are troubleshooting a jumpstart server problem. You need to confirm the install server that the
client is using. Which file in the list provides the location of the install server to the client?
A. bootparams
B. ethers
C. add_install_client
D. add_install_server
E. C0A80101.SUN4U
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two profile keywords are required to install a differential flash archive? (choose two)
A. install_type
B. archive_location
C. flash_update
D. flash_install
E. local_customization
Answer: AB

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NO.5 if your system uses a large number of mirrors, make sure that you have an adequate number of state
databases. If you create too few state database replicas, performance could be negatively impacted.
What is the recommended number of state database replicas for mirrored volumes?
A. At least two state database replicas per RAID-1 volume.
B. At least three state database replicas per RAID-1 volume.
C. One state database replicas per RAID-1 volume.
D. At least five state database replicas per RAID-1 volume.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have been assigned a task to create in new profile file for the jumpstart server. Which profile
keyword will you use to define the software packages that will be installed on the client?
A. install_type
B. cluster
C. system_type
D. partitioning
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is a container that holds entries for a specific information type?
A. LDIF
B. DIT
C. SSD
D. DSEE
Answer: B

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NO.8 The system administrator has placed several entries in the direct map of a Solaris 10 OS machine that
is configured to use local files..
Which three features are direct map entries.? (Choose three.)
A. Direct maps can always be browsed.
B. Direct maps specify relative paths only.
C. Direct maps specify the absolute path of the mount point.
D. A /- entry in the master map defines a mount point for direct maps.
E. A master map that is a local file can only have one direct map entry.
F. The directory specified in the map entry can be mounted from a comma-separated list of servers.
Answer: CDF

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NO.9 You are configuring a PXE boot jumpstart server and the add_install_client scripts has returned two
macros, BootSrvA and BootFile that must be configured in DHCP. Select the two commands that can be
used to configure the BootSrvA and BootFile DHCP macros.
A. dhtadm or dhcptab
B. dhcpadm or dhcpagent
C. dhcpmgr or dhcpinfo
D. dhcpmgr or dhtadm
Answer: D

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NO.10 How many data sources can be specified in the Name Service Switch file for each of the data
types?(Choose two.)
A. only one
B. a minimum of two
C. a minimum of one
D. a maximum of four
E. a maximum depending on the data type
F. a maximum depending on the system type
Answer: CE

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NO.11 Which two statements about the relationship between NIS master servers and NIS slave servers are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Load balancing capabilities within NIS can be achieved by configuring at least one slave server on
each subnet.
B. Clients cannot bind across subnets, therefore you must provide a slave server on each subnet bound
to a master server.
C. Only one master server can be configured, but it can support multiple slave servers and clients.
D. There can be an unlimited number of slave servers and clients on a subnet, but there must be a master
server on each subnet.
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which two commands list the profiles assigned to user fred? (Choose two.)
A. profiles fred
B. profiles -l fred
C. profiles -list fred
D. grep -w fred /etc/security/prof_attr
E. grep -w fred /etc/securfity/policy.conf
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
# luupgrade -t -n newbe -s /opt/local/tmp
You are observing a junior administrator. They have just entered the command shown in the exhibit.
Examine the exhibit and select the answer that best describes the purpose of the command.
A. upgrade the newbe environment with a flash archive located in /opt/local/tmp
B. upgrade the newbe environment with a OS image located in /opt/local/tmp
C. temporarily mount the file system /opt/local/tmp in the newbe environment 6 / 58
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D. patch the newbe environment with patches located in /opt/local/tmp
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are troubleshooting an LDAP problem for a client. Which command can be used to provid extensive
status information for troubleshooting?
A. ldaplist
B. ldapclient
C. ldap_cachemgr
D. ldapstatus
Answer: C

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NO.15 Swap space in Solaris 10 OS is managed by the swapfs file system.
Which two statements accurately describe swapfs? (Choose two.)
A. The swap file system consists only of swap slices and swap files.
B. The swap file system might consist of physical RAM, swap slices, and swap files.
C. The swap slices and swap files managed by swapfs need to be twice as large as physical RAM on the
system.
D. The swapfs provides virtual swap space addresses, thus decreasing the need for physical swap on
systems with large, available memory.
E. The swapfs provides real physical swap space addresses in response to swap space reservation
requests.
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Select the answer that best describes the four LDAP update operations?
A. Add, Delete, Create, Remove
B. Create, Delete, Modify, Rename
C. Add, Delete, Modify, Create
D. Create, Delete, Bind, Modify
Answer: B

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NO.17 You need to update a existing BE with the files from you currently running BE so that you can upgrade
the existing BE. Which command will achieve this?
A. lucreate
B. lumake
C. lucurr
D. luupgrade
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following statements concerning Live Upgrade is TRUE?
A. You could use vi to modify the /etc/hosts file in a non-active BE
B. The /usr file system can be shared between two BEs
C. You can NOT use the pkgadd command to add a package to a non-active BE
D. You can NOT create a empty BE
E. The BE can only be modified using the luupgrade command
Answer: A

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
# ./add_install_client -s server1:/jumpstart/OS -c server2:/jumpstart/config -p server3:/jumpstart/config
client1 sun4u
Your colleague is configuring a client for installation with jumpstart. They have entered the command
shown in the exhibit. Examine the exhibit, on which server will the profile file be found?
A. The profile file server is not defined
B. server1 in the /jumpstart/OS directory
C. server2 in the /jumpstart/config directory
D. server3 in the /jumpstart/config directory
Answer: C

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NO.20 An objectclass entry is best associated with which LDAP model?
A. Naming Model
B. Information Model
C. Security Model
D. Functional Model
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne 9 Configurable Network Computing Essentials)
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NO.1 What three object types are promoted via Object Management Workbench (OMW)?
A. UDCs
B. User Overrides
C. Data Dictionary Item
D. Favorites
E. Serialized Objects
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 When selecting a Path Code Database as part of the EnterpriseOne Platform Pack installation, which
two get installed on the server.?
A. System/Foundation code
B. Path Code specifications and runtime libraries
C. Database scripts to create and load databases
D. Server Manager Agent
E. Path Code Databases - Central Objects, Business Data, ...
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Regardless of the platform choice, Work with Server Jobs is the key mechanism to review the status of
a UBE job that has been submitted to server. After a job has been submitted, which of the following
configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function an
administrator cannot do from Work with Server Jobs?
A. Print Jobs
B. Change Job Priority
C. View Logs for Job
D. Terminate Jobs
E. Resubmit a Job
Answer: B

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NO.4 ACME is working on setting up security for *PUBLIC, individual users, and roles. What security type
grants permission to run an application regardless of other security settings?
A. Application
B. Action
C. Exit
D. Exclusive Application
E. Tab
Answer: D

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NO.5 What configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function?
A. Activity Rules
B. User Roles
C. Constants
D. Allowed Actions
E. Save Location
Answer: D

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NO.6 EnterpriseOne subsystem UBE jobs provide the system the ability to run without interaction and to
avoid the fixed cost of repeated UBE startup overhead. Which of the options would make UBE a
good candidate for the subsystem?
A. Long running jobs
B. Short duration jobs
C. Process intensive jobs
D. Light-weight process jobs
E. High memory usage jobs
Answer: B

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NO.7 ACME has decided to begin their EnterPriseOne implementation using the Oracle VM Templates for
JDE. Which three types are available for immediate download and quick implementation via e delivery?
A. Enterprise Server
B. HTML Server
C. Portal Server
D. Deployment Server
E. Database Server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Sever Manager provides a unified interface where administrators can view information regarding
EnterpriseOne. What are the three major functions of Server Manager?
A. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Installed Programs
B. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Configurations
C. Check the EnterpriseOne Server OS Patch level
D. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Process
E. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Task Manager
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 ACME is about to upgrade their Development environment from ERP 8.0 to EnterpriseOne 9.00.
Which pre-upgrade task is NOT recommended by the EnterpriseOne Upgrade documentation?
A. Verify Media Object queue setting in P98MOQUE
B. Generate serialized objects for the development environment
C. Transfer production versions to prototype using UBE R9830512
D. Make sure all work in progress objects have been checked into the development environment
E. Check the modification and merge flags through the Specification Merge Selection application
Answer: D

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NO.10 When deploying a Full Package to an Enterprise Server, what defines the location of the object
specifications to be used during runtime that the package deployment modifies?
A. The path code spec directory
B. The package spec directory
C. JDE.INI
D. OCM
E. The spec.ini file in the package spec directory
Answer: E

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NO.1 Which API must an EJB 3.1 container make available to enterprise beans at runtime? (Choose one)
A. The JXTA 1.1 API
B. The MIDP 2.0 API
C. The Java SE 6 JNDI API
D. The Java SE 5 JDBC API
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Assume you would like to receive notification from the container as a stateless session bean transitions
to and from the ready state.
Which of the following life cycle back annotations would you use? (Choose one.)
A. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy
B. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy
C. @PreConstruct, @PostDestroy
D. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy, @Remove
E. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy, @Remove
Answer: B

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NO.3 A developer examines a list of potential enterprise applications and selects the most appropriate
technologies to use for each application.
For which two applications is EJB an appropriate solution.? (Choose two.)
A. To render a GUI for mobile clients.
B. As a container for web-tier components including JSP.
C. As a Web service endpoint accessed by non-Java clients.
D. To receive and respond to HTTP Post requests directly from a web browser.
E. As an online shopping cart which can persist across multiple sessions with a single client.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 public int getValue () {return value; }
A session bean ClientBean has a business method doSomething and an ejb-ref with ejb-ref-name
fooRef
that is mapped to FooBean s Foo interface.
11. @Resource private SessionContext SessionCtx;
12. public void doSomething () {

NO.5 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Typically, remotely accessible objects should be coarse-grained.
B. If a client accesses an enterprise bean locally such access must be mediated by the EJB container.
C. A given enterprise bean's transaction information is immutable because it is deployed across various
containers.
D. If a container provides services NOT required by the EJB specification, then that container is NOT
considered to be an EJB container.
E. An enterprise bean's transaction Information can be accessed by external tools only if the information
is contained in an XML deployment descriptor.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 public void setValue (int i) {value = i; }

NO.7 A developer writes a stateful session bean FooBean with one remote business interface Foo. Foo
defines an integer / setter method pair implemented as:

NO.8 Foo foo2 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup("fooRef");

NO.9 }
A. @Stateful
public class BarEJB implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
B. @Stateful (name = Bar )
public class Barbean implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
C. @Stateful
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () {}
D. @Stateful (name = bar )
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}
Answer: C

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7.A developer creates a stateful session bean that is used by many concurrent clients. The clients are
written by other development team; and it is assumed that these clients might not remove the bean when
ending their session. The number of concurrent sessions will be greater than the defined bean cache
size.
The developer must consider that the state of the session bean can be influenced by either passivation or
timeout.
Which three actions should the developer take to make the bean behave correctly in passivation and
timeout situations? (Choose three.)
A. Release references to resources in a @Remove annotated method.
B. Re-establish references to resources in an omit annotated method.
C. Release references to resources in a @preDestroy annotated method.
D. Release references to resources in a SPrePassivate annotated method.
E. Re-establish references to resources in a @PostActivate annotated method.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance variables A and
B are serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many business calls, and
can, therefore, not be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper instance variable C is defined
as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is in variable B. for example, B is of
type XML-DOM tree and C of Type String.
Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state of the session bean over a passivation and
activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of Instance variable B in the beans no-arg
constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postcreate
annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postActivate
annotated method.
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable type
and assigned to another instance variable in a @preDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable
type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated method.
Answer: C,E

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NO.11 foo1.setvalue(1);
Which statement is true after the code at line 15 completes?
A. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
B. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
C. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
D. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
Answer: D

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10.A developer writes a stateless session bean FooBean with one remote business interface FooRemote
containing one business method foo. Method foo takes a single parameter of application-defined type
MyData.
11. public class MyData implements java.io.Serialization {
12. int a;
13. }
Methods foo is implemented with the FooBean class as:
11. public void foo (MyData data) {
12. data.a = 2;
13. }
Another session bean within the same application has a reference to FooRemote in variable fooRef and
calls method foo with the following code:
11. MyData data = new MyData();
12. data.a = 1;
13. Fooref.foo(data);
14. System.out.printIn(data.a);
What is the value of data.a when control reaches Line 14 of the client?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
Answer: B

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NO.12 A developer needs to deliver a large-scale enterprise application that connects developer chooses an
EJB 3.1-compliant application server, which three are true about the EJB business component tier?
(Choose three.)
A. Load-balancing is NOT a guarantee for all EJB 3.1 containers.
B. Clustering is guaranteed to be supported by the EJB 3.1 container.
C. Thread pooling can be optimized by the Bean Provider programmatically.
D. Bean Providers are NOT required to write code for transaction demarcation.
E. Support for server fail-over is guaranteed for an EJB 3.1-compliant application server.
F. EJB 3.1 compliant components are guaranteed to work within any Java EE 6 application server
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.13 private int value;

NO.14 Foo foo1 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup("fooRef");

NO.15 A developer wants to write a stateful session bean using the following interface as local business
interface:
1. package acme;
2. public interface Bar {
3. public void bar ();
4. }
Assuming there is not an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define the
bean with the ejb name of BarBean?
1. package acme;
2. import javax.ejb.*;
3. import java.io.*;
4.
5.
6.

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Exam Code: 1Z0-574
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle IT Architecture Release 3 Essentials )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 176 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true about an end-to-end security strategy?
A. End-to-end security and point-to-point security are virtually identical strategies proposed by different
security vendors.
B. End-to-end security strives to protect data at rest, even in temporary queues.
C. End-to-end security often involves some form of message-level protection.
D. When end-to-end security is enabled. Point-to-point transport-level encryption should be disabledin
order to avoid cryptography conflicts between layers.
E. End to-end security is highly beneficial for distributed computing environments where many
point-point connections and intermediaries exist, because it offers seamless data protection.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 Which four components of the following list should be found in the client tier of the Logical view of the
Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction?
A. Personalization
B. Communication services
C. State management
D. Customization
E. Collaboration
F. Syndication
G. Controller
H. Rendering
Answer: B,C,G,H

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NO.3 Which of the following options best describes the concept of data-driven testing.?
A. Data-driven testing is a strategy used to perform load testing.
B. Data-driven testing is used to perform functional tests by iterating through data sets in a databank.
C. Data-driven testing uses a single predefined data set to perform repeated testing.
D. Data-driven testing uses database triggers to initiate and run test cases.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which WebCenter product Improves efficiency and productivity by enabling users to connect with others,
regardless of their location, via web and voice conferencing, instant messaging, presence, and chat
rooms?
A. Oracle WebCenter Intelligent Collaboration
B. Oracle WebCenter Anywhere
C. Oracle WebCenter Real-Time Collaboration
D. Oracle WebCenter Spaces
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is not an objective or function of the WS-Trust standard?
A. to enable applications to construct trusted SOAP message exchanges
B. to synchronize Identities across security domains
C. to exchange tokens in order to overcome differencesin supported technology between service
consumers and service providers
D. to exchange tokensin order to mapidentities supplied by service consumers with identities supported
by service providers
Answer: A

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NO.6 Interface elements are an important part of modular programming for UI. Which of the following
statements is true with regard to Interface elements?
A. Interface elements are always provided as proprietary packages of widgets from device vendors and
third parties.
B. There is a wide variety of interface elements that can be developed once and used repeatedly in
various user-interface designs.
C. Interface elements are highly standardized and, once developed for one device, they are sufficiently
portable to be reused on other devices without modification.
D. Interface elements implement application-specific functionality and are therefore rarely reusable
across multiple applications.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 The three common goals of Information security are known as the CIA triad. CIA stands for:
A. Confidentiality, Integrity and Auditing
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access Control
D. Confidentiality, Integrity and Authentication
E. Confidentiality,Integrity and Authorization
Answer: B

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NO.8 A longer term goal of Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) is to enable composite applications that are
assembled from SOA Services. Which statement best describes the relationship between composite
application assembly and SOA Service engineering?
A. Composite application assembly and SOA Service engineering are separate, decoupled efforts without
any meaningful Interaction.
B. All SOA Service engineering must be completed prior to any composite application assembly.
C. Composite application assembly uses service contracts created by SOA Service engineering and
generates requirements that are Inputs to SOA Service engineering.
D. SOA Service engineering creates SOA Services following sound engineering principles, while
composite application assembly uses SOA Services based on WSPL interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following are ORA Engineering logical categories?
A. Integrated Development Environment
B. Quality Manager
C. Asset Manager
D. Monitoring and Management
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 As part of a company-wide IT Initiative to simplify and rationalize the technology and products used you
have been tasked with defining an Enterprise Architecture. The Enterprise Architecture will be used to
communicate the desired future state where redundant, deprecated, and undesired technology and
products have been eliminated. Oracle products will be included. In the Enterprise Architecture, it will be
products from other vendors, including products that directly compete with Oracle products.
Which option best describes how IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) material can be used while creating
the Enterprise Architecture?
A. The ITSO material cannot be used because ITSO applies to Oracle products only.
B. The ITSO material can be used without modification because it has no Oracle product dependencies.
C. The ITSO material can be used as reference material but will require customization to reflect specific
products selected by the company.
D. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO can be readily applied, but the Rest of ITSO
cannot, because of product dependencies.
E. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO cannot be applied due to pre dependencies,
but the rest of ITSO can be applied.
F. The ITSO material is not applicable to rationalization of IT asset
Answer: C

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NO.11 There are various network topologies that can be used when deploying the Service-Oriented
Integration architecture. One deployment option includes three networks: production network, services
network and maintenance network. Which statement best describes the uses of these three networks?
A. The production networkisused for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage
the infrastructure.
B. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer.
The services network provides connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The
maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
C. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer-
The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used
by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
D. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services network provides
connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The maintenance network is by the
operations team to manage the infrastructure.
E. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is trusted network, providing administrator
access to all hardware and software.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Identify the true statements in the following list.
A. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into the client tier and the server tier.
B. The components of the ORA UI Logical view are model, view, and controller.
C. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into thedisplaytier and theresourcestier.
D. In addition to the core components, the Logical view also includes security, communication protocols,
and development tools.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 What are the benefits of the browser over traditional user Interfaces (for example, client-server GUI)?
A. HTML provides a richer interface for end users.
B. Development, maintenance, and support costs are reduced.
C. The browser simplifies application deployment compared to dedicated client server GUI applications.
D. There is more variety among browsers than among client-server GUIs.
E. The browser provides a richer graphical environment than client-server GUIs.
F. Browsers can support more diverse devices than dedicated client-server GUI application.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.14 Which statement best describes the relationship between Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) and
the Oracle products?
A. ORA describes the architecture built in to the Oracle products.
B. ORA describes the architecture underlying the Oracle Fusion Applications.
C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the
architecture.
D. ORA describes an architecture thatis exclusively based on Oracle products.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the Service
Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Conceptually, the ORA model of a "modern UI" defines which three layers from the following list?
A. Unified User Interface layer provides the control and visual elements that define the interaction that the
user has with the system.
B. Integration layer provides connectors to simplify and standardize Interaction with back-end terns.
C. Device Management layer provides transformation and transcoding to support a wide variety of
devices.
D. Browser Mediation layer adapts output to conform to the standards and capabilities of each browser
type.
E. User Interface Services layer provides reusable functions specialized to the needs of the end
F. Access and Incorporation layer provides the capability to Incorporate data and functionality from any
number of back-end systems into the user interface.
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.17 Which of the following are the key drivers for Grid computing?
A. Improved server utilization - Grid computing allows companies to lower costs through the efficient use
of resources.
B. Better agility and flexibility - Businesses experience constant change and the underlying IT
Infrastructure should be agile enough to support that kind of change.
C. OpEx model - Enterprises require pay-as-you-go services to reduce the dependency on capital
expenditure and take advantage of the benefits of operational expenditure.
D. Lower Initial cost-There is a need to reduce the Initial investment at the cost of an increased
operational cost.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 Which statements best describe how architecture principles are used within the Oracle Reference
Architecture (ORA)?
A. The architecture principles for Oracle products are identified whenever an Oracle product incorporated
into the architecture.
B. ORA uses multiple architecturalviews where each view has its own architecture principles.
C. ORA documents describe the architectural principles upon which the architecture is based.
D. Architecture principles provide recommendations (based on industry best practices) that should be
followed.
E. Architecture principles are rules that must be followedin order to comply with the documented
architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Bottom-up service Identification analyzes existing systems to Identify SOA Services. Top-down service
identification analyzes business processes to identify SOA services.
Which statement best describes the relationship between top down and bottom-up service identification in
Service-Oriented Integration?
A. Only a bottom up approach shouldbe used because the goal of SOIis to provide SOA Services
exposing existing systems.
B. Only a top-down approach should be used because the goal of SOI is composite application assembly.
C. A bottom-up approach should be used to identify which SOA Services are built; then a top-down
approach should be used to determine which SOA Services are used by each composite application.
D. A top-down approach should be used to determine the needed SOA Services; then a bottom-up
approach should be used to determine how existing source systems can meet the requirements top-down
approach should be used by business, and a bottom-up approach should be used by IT.Theoverlap
between the SOA Services Identified by the two methods are the ones that should
Answer: D

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NO.20 Where are the components of the client tier of the ORA UI logical architecture hosted?
A. on the transcoding engine
B. on the web server
C. on the display device
D. some components on the web server and some on the display device
Answer: C

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